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    • Thank-you dx, What you have written is certainly helpful to my understanding. The only thing I would say, what I found to be most worrying and led me to start this discussion is, I believe the judge did not merely admonish the defendant in the case in question, but used that point to dismiss the case in the claimants favour. To me, and I don't have your experience or knowledge, that is somewhat troubling. Again, the caveat being that we don't know exactly what went on but I think we can infer the reason for the judgement. Thank-you for your feedback. EDIT: I guess that the case I refer to is only one case and it may never happen again and the strategy not to appeal is still the best strategy even in this event, but I really did find the outcome of that case, not only extremely annoying but also worrying. Let's hope other judges are not quite so narrow minded and don't get fixated on one particular issue as FTMDave alluded to.
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    • the claimant in their WS can refer to whatever previous CC judgements they like, as we do in our WS's, but CC judgements do not set a legal precedence. however, they do often refer to judgements like Bevis, those cases do created a precedence as they were court of appeal rulings. as for if the defendant, prior to the raising of a claim, dobbed themselves in as the driver in writing during any appeal to the PPC, i don't think we've seen one case whereby the claimant referred to such in their WS.. ?? but they certainly typically include said appeal letters in their exhibits. i certainly dont think it's a good idea to 'remind' them of such at the defence stage, even if the defendant did admit such in a written appeal. i would further go as far to say, that could be even more damaging to the whole case than a judge admonishing a defendant for not appealing to the PPC in the 1st place. it sort of blows the defendant out the water before the judge reads anything else. dx  
    • Hi LFI, Your knowledge in this area is greater than I could possibly hope to have and as such I appreciate your feedback. I'm not sure that I agree the reason why a barrister would say that, only to get new customers, I'm sure he must have had professional experience in this area that qualifies him to make that point. 🙂 In your point 1 you mention: 1] there is a real danger that some part of the appeal will point out that the person appealing [the keeper ] is also the driver. I understand the point you are making but I was referring to when the keeper is also the driver and admits it later and only in this circumstance, but I understand what you are saying. I take on board the issues you raise in point 2. Is it possible that a PPC (claimant) could refer back to the case above as proof that the motorist should have appealed, like they refer back to other cases? Thanks once again for the feedback.
    • Well barristers would say that in the hope that motorists would go to them for advice -obviously paid advice.  The problem with appealing is at least twofold. 1] there is a real danger that some part of the appeal will point out that the person appealing [the keeper ] is also the driver.  And in a lot of cases the last thing the keeper wants when they are also the driver is that the parking company knows that. It makes it so much easier for them as the majority  of Judges do not accept that the keeper and the driver are the same person for obvious reasons. Often they are not the same person especially when it is a family car where the husband, wife and children are all insured to drive the same car. On top of that  just about every person who has a valid insurance policy is able to drive another person's vehicle. So there are many possibilities and it should be up to the parking company to prove it to some extent.  Most parking company's do not accept appeals under virtually any circumstances. But insist that you carry on and appeal to their so called impartial jury who are often anything but impartial. By turning down that second appeal, many motorists pay up because they don't know enough about PoFA to argue with those decisions which brings us to the second problem. 2] the major parking companies are mostly unscrupulous, lying cheating scrotes. So when you appeal and your reasons look as if they would have merit in Court, they then go about  concocting a Witness Statement to debunk that challenge. We feel that by leaving what we think are the strongest arguments to our Member's Witness Statements, it leaves insufficient time to be thwarted with their lies etc. And when the motorists defence is good enough to win, it should win regardless of when it is first produced.   
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    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

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      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
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#Employment : Resigning a zero hour contract, notice & implications


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Hi all, looking for some advice and hopefully some of you lovely people can help me :)

 

Ive been working for a retailer for nearly 5 months on a zero hour contract and it has been my sole job, during the interview it was broadly aggreed that I would be on 20+ a week and I have been so, fluctuating between the mid 20s and 40.

 

I have now been offered a new job that offers me everything that my current does not and the sooner I can take it up the better for my new boss and his company, as a contract has been won and needs fulfilled. Obviously I'm eager to take the new role but don't want to leave myself open.

 

I mentioned the offer to my manager, and he informed me theres a four week notice period, my question is can I just tell him I'm now unavailible to work due to the zero hour contract not guarnateeing my availibilty to work, or will the regularity of work/agreement leave me liable possible for loss of earnings?

 

I have only taken 5 days holiday so far and was also wondering if I were to leave whether I would have these paid to me. It would be preferable for me to finish on holidays meaning I could move to the new job sooner, however I can't see this being agreed to by the managers as two of our permanent staff are also leaving to new jobs

 

I don't want to leave on bad terms as I get on with all the staff and managers however the quicker I can make the move the better.

 

Any help would be very much appreciated, cheers

bintin

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Have you been given a written statement of the terms & conditions of employment?

And, if so, what does that say is the period of notice you are required to give if you leave?

You would, having worked continuously for over a month, have to give at least one weeks notice.

If you have accrued holiday entitlement, you are entitled to be paid for this. Whether or not you would be entitled to take this holiday as part of your notice would again depend on your T&C's and/or it being agreed by your employer.

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If your contract states you are not obliged to work more than 0 hours per week and they are not obliged to offer any more than 0 hours per week then you could actually do 4 weeks notice at 0 hours, simply put they ask you to work, you say sorry, i've done my contractual hours.

 

As rmd said, check your contract, if you have not received one it's a week

 

This may not be good advice though (and more me wanting to line employers working 0 hrs contracts up against a wall)

 

By doing this and starting another job at the same time (becuase you were not obliged to do any work over 0 hrs) it could cock up your tax code and put you on emergency tax i suppose, to be honest tax isn't a strongpoint for me

 

As rmd stated your entitled to accrued leave either by way of it being granted or pay in lieu of notice, it should be calculated at the average of the previous 12 weeks pay, this is another possible minefield depending on when the calculation occurs as if it's done now with your 20-40 hrs it will be significantly different than one where the last 4 weeks of the 12 are 0 hrs

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Cheers for the replys, it's cleared it up a bit for me.

 

Looking through the contract there is a four week notice period.

It also states that employment is on an as and when engagement and there may be periods where no hours can be offered

"this contract is classed as being part time casual. Your manager will agree hours to be worked on an ongoing basis. The company does not vomit to provide you with regular work and review the situatio depending workload.

It is therefore a condition of this offer that you understand that where the company finds it cannot provide work for you over a period of three months it reserves the right to conclude the contract"

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I guess they'll be getting told I can't work. I was rather frightened of moving on as when I suggested just leaving my assistant manager said if I broke the contract I would e liable for loss of profits but I'm guessing thats pretty much impossible on a zero hour contract, never mind not being worth the effort!

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Well, I'd say it depends on whether it's set out in the contract or implied by precedent that you have the option of turning down any work during the 4 weeks of your notice period.

If you can say, "No thanks, I'm not available", then the contractual notice period is effectively immaterial.

But if you have to work as and when they want you, then if you turn down work during your notice period you could be held to be in breach of contract.

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