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    • where does anything say its a penalty charge please? sit on your hands , stop begging to everyone await if/when you ever get a letter of claim. thread title updated     
    • Hi all, new member, being advised by someone on another forum but looking for the opinion of others to help me decide what to do.  Bit of a long one but I am looking for some quite specific advice or signposting to somewhere that may hold the correct information. Long story short, I bought an Audi on finance years ago and traded my old car in under the diesel scrappage scheme, brilliant. This allowed me to reduce the value of my brand new car by £7,000 Fast forward a few years later and I fell into hardship. Unfortunately I could no longer afford the car and despite my best efforts at trying to negotiate some kind of support from VWFS (Audi financial Services), the car was subsequently marked stolen and I was pulled over at the side of the road using Tactical Pursuit and Contain. My car was then recovered back to the finance company. I struggled for a while, bought an older car to get myself by and eventually got my finances back on track. Then in September of last year I became aware of a CCJ against me filed by VWFS, for the shortfall of the agreement minus the value of the car which was sold at auction. This caused me to do some research into my agreement, legislation and also consult some legal advice. Using another forum and speaking to retired vehicle finance lawyers, it turned out I may have some grounds to apply to set aside the CCJ at a Court hearing, so I drafted some documents and a witness statement and I was successful in setting aside the CCJ, on the grounds that VWFS had no evidence that I had traded in my old car as a part exchange. Now this is where things get complicated. My whole defence on winning the case against VWFS and disregarding liability for the shortfall rested on the fact that, with my old car as a part exchange, I had paid in more than a third of the agreement and VWFS could not repossess my car without a court order or they would be in breach of Section 90 of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 and I would be entitled to all sums paid under the agreement. I took this all the way, noting that the CCA 1974 and the Consumer Credit Agreement Regulations 2010 state that a deposit is defined as any exchange of goods or by any other means a reduction in value of a purchase by means of a transfer. I recently had my day in Court but as a litigant in person, was cross examined by an all singing all dancing Barrister and of course he persuaded the Judge that I had no case, and that my car traded in under the scrappage incentive was not to be classed as a deposit, despite it literally being written in legislation, amongst other reasons why I found the HP agreement to not be properly executed. I am now appealing this decision as I strongly believe the Judge has misinterpreted the law, What I really need for this to be successful is someone who is knowledgeable in the field of Vehicle Finance to help me understand if I have a possibility of overturning this case, as I have no doubt at all that my car should be classed as a part exchange and a deposit and it is blatantly written in the legislation that the finance companies are bound by. I would massively appreciate if someone can help me decipher this legislation and its application in the sense of my HP agreement, I simply do not understand how I can trade in my car and it not be classed as a part exchange, or a deposit. Similarly, if someone is able to find the exact wording of the terms and conditions of how the Diesel Scrappage Scheme was managed in 2018 that would be an absolute life saver! Thanks so much in advance, this is not a straight forward nor a well documented case but I believe I am onto something and I believe there will be other people in my position who have lost their cars without knowing this clause and could well be entitled to reclaim all sums under the agreement
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personall guarentee help please!


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please can anyone offer me any advice????

 

I was down a a company secretary, the company has ceased trading since June 09, Resulting in vehicles being repossessed etc,

I was aware of a personal guarantee i had placed on one of the vehicles and have spent the last 4 months trying to resolve it which i settled with the company 2 weeks ago,

 

Just when i thought i could breath a sigh of relief i recieved a letter on Thursday saying that one of the other finance companys had changed hands in July 2009 but this would make difference to my guarentee, On Friday i recieved a letter from the finance company asking my payment proposals for 20k which is the outstanding ammount.

As you can imagine this came as a total shock as i was not aware of a PG other than the one i settled, I have not personally recieved any letters for late payment issues before the vehicle was repossed etc, The ltd company recieved letters from solicitors in Nov 09 saying the company had 14 days to make full payment or court action would be taken We were advised to let this happen. Interestingly the solicitors was the same as the ones used when i settled the PG,

I rang the finance company and was informed that there was a guarentee in place, they have sent this to me and it does appear that i have signed something, but this was for a vehicle we purchased in 07, sold and repaid the outstanding amount we used the same company to finance to buy a new vechile, surely that can not us that and if so should i not of been made aware, I honestly had no idea that i had signed a Pg in the first place i was told i was a second signature as it was a ltd company so required 2 signatures, All these " deals" were done in car parks. stupid i know but at the time .....

I have settled one PG and paid expensive solicitor fees to do this can anyone please give me advice on what i can do by my self and how i can tackle this and get any other info they have on me

j

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Are you saying that a totally new finance was taken out after the finance that you signed was settled? And it is this finance you are being chased for?

7 years in retail customer service

 

Expertise in letting and rental law for 6 years

 

By trade - I'm an IT engineer working in the housing sector.

 

Please note that any posts made by myself are for information only and should not and must not be taken as correct or factual. If in doubt, consult with a solicitor or other person of equal legal standing.

 

Please click the star if I have helped!!

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Yes, Original finance was settled and we used the same company to finance another vehicle, the new finance has a complete different agreement number, Although the guarantee i signed has no agreement number on it is clearly dated as the same date the first finance was taken out, i had no idea this was a personal guarantee.

 

where i signed it says " signed as a deed by the guarantor and indemnifier, if the guarantor or indemnifier is a ltd company 2 directors or a director and secretary must sign on behalf of the company"

 

I honestly thought i was a second signature what do i do

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Right, two things.

 

First and foremost, I would tell them to FO with two fingers firmly in the air. They cant transfer the guarantor agreement between agreements.

 

Secondly, I thought the whole point of a LIMITED company was that the company is that exposed, NOT the individual.

 

It even specifies as you have said above that you have NOT signed as a guarantor, but ON BEHALF OF THE COMPANY.

 

They are trying it on.

 

I would be inclined to write back to them and simply state you owe them no money, their agreement was with the limited company, and you will not enter into any further correspondance.

 

ALL THAT SAID - await other posters, as this is way outside of my field of expertise.

7 years in retail customer service

 

Expertise in letting and rental law for 6 years

 

By trade - I'm an IT engineer working in the housing sector.

 

Please note that any posts made by myself are for information only and should not and must not be taken as correct or factual. If in doubt, consult with a solicitor or other person of equal legal standing.

 

Please click the star if I have helped!!

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I would be a little cautious about telling the solicitors to go away.

 

The wording of the guarantee might allow it to be used with any loan or credit agreement - as you have said yourself it doesn't have an agreement number on it.

In any case you have not said that the guarantee was discharged when the first loan was paid off.

 

If you have signed the guarantee as the guarantor then there must be two other signatures on the document which must both be directors because you were the Company Secretary and you can't sign as both Guarantor and CS. If you did then you have unwittingly dug a big hole for yourself.

 

In response to MrShed's point : it is quite common for banks and other financial institutions to require a personal guarantee when lending money. In business situations it is also quite common for the creditor to be very hard-nosed about enforcing the guarantee.

I really do appreciate all those 'thank you' emails - I'm glad I've been able to help. Apologies if I haven't acknowledged all of them.

You can also ding my gong if you prefer. :)

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Bear in mind palomino the quote above by the OP:

 

where i signed it says " signed as a deed by the guarantor and indemnifier, if the guarantor or indemnifier is a ltd company 2 directors or a director and secretary must sign on behalf of the company"

 

IF its a limited company, they are signing on BEHALF of the company.

 

However I freely admit that I am way out of my comfort zone on this one.

7 years in retail customer service

 

Expertise in letting and rental law for 6 years

 

By trade - I'm an IT engineer working in the housing sector.

 

Please note that any posts made by myself are for information only and should not and must not be taken as correct or factual. If in doubt, consult with a solicitor or other person of equal legal standing.

 

Please click the star if I have helped!!

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MrShed - I agree it is ambiguously worded (and I went the wrong way).

 

If the OP signed in his personal capacity then his own, single signature fulfils the requirements. I believe this is the situation here.

Alternatively the guarantor could be a limited company (guaranteeing the loan to another limited company) in which the two-signatures part applies.

 

Hence we now need to ask where the OP signed the form : presumably as an individual guarantor.

I really do appreciate all those 'thank you' emails - I'm glad I've been able to help. Apologies if I haven't acknowledged all of them.

You can also ding my gong if you prefer. :)

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