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    • Northmonk forget what I said about your Notice to Hirer being the best I have seen . Though it  still may be  it is not good enough to comply with PoFA. Before looking at the NTH, we can look at the original Notice to Keeper. That is not compliant. First the period of parking as sated on their PCN is not actually the period of parking but a misstatement  since it is only the arrival and departure times of your vehicle. The parking period  is exactly that -ie the time youwere actually parked in a parking spot.  If you have to drive around to find a place to park the act of driving means that you couldn't have been parked at the same time. Likewise when you left the parking place and drove to the exit that could not be describes as parking either. So the first fail is  failing to specify the parking period. Section9 [2][a] In S9[2][f] the Act states  (ii)the creditor does not know both the name of the driver and a current address for service for the driver, the creditor will (if all the applicable conditions under this Schedule are met) have the right to recover from the keeper so much of that amount as remains unpaid; Your PCN fails to mention the words in parentheses despite Section 9 [2]starting by saying "The notice must—..." As the Notice to Keeper fails to comply with the Act,  it follows that the Notice to Hirer cannot be pursued as they couldn't get the NTH compliant. Even if the the NTH was adjudged  as not  being affected by the non compliance of the NTK, the Notice to Hirer is itself not compliant with the Act. Once again the PCN fails to get the parking period correct. That alone is enough to have the claim dismissed as the PCN fails to comply with PoFA. Second S14 [5] states " (5)The notice to Hirer must— (a)inform the hirer that by virtue of this paragraph any unpaid parking charges (being parking charges specified in the notice to keeper) may be recovered from the hirer; ON their NTH , NPE claim "The driver of the above vehicle is liable ........" when the driver is not liable at all, only the hirer is liable. The driver and the hirer may be different people, but with a NTH, only the hirer is liable so to demand the driver pay the charge  fails to comply with PoFA and so the NPE claim must fail. I seem to remember that you have confirmed you received a copy of the original PCN sent to  the Hire company plus copies of the contract you have with the Hire company and the agreement that you are responsible for breaches of the Law etc. If not then you can add those fails too.
    • Weaknesses in some banks' security measures for online and mobile banking could leave customers more exposed to scammers, new data from Which? reveals.View the full article
    • I understand what you mean. But consider that part of the problem, and the frustration of those trying to help, is the way that questions are asked without context and without straight facts. A lot of effort was wasted discussing as a consumer issue before it was mentioned that the property was BTL. I don't think we have your history with this property. Were you the freehold owner prior to this split? Did you buy the leasehold of one half? From a family member? How was that funded (earlier loan?). How long ago was it split? Have either of the leasehold halves changed hands since? I'm wondering if the split and the leashold/freehold arrangements were set up in a way that was OK when everyone was everyone was connected. But a way that makes the leasehold virtually unsaleable to an unrelated party.
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      On 15/1/24 booked appointment with Big Motoring World (BMW) to view a mini on 17/1/24 at 8pm at their Enfield dealership.  

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    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

      Frankly I don't think that is any accident.

      One of the points that the judge made was that the customers contract with the broker specifically refers to the courier – and it is clear that the courier knows that they are acting for a third party. There is no need to name the third party. They just have to be recognisably part of a class of person – such as a sender or a recipient of the parcel.

      Please note that a recent case against UPS failed on exactly the same issue with the judge held that the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999 did not apply.

      We will be getting that transcript very soon. We will look at it and we will understand how the judge made such catastrophic mistakes. It was a very poor judgement.
      We will be recommending that people do include this adverse judgement in their bundle so that when they go to county court the judge will see both sides and see the arguments against this adverse judgement.
      Also, we will be to demonstrate to the judge that we are fair-minded and that we don't mind bringing everything to the attention of the judge even if it is against our own interests.
      This is good ethical practice.

      It would be very nice if the parcel delivery companies – including EVRi – practised this kind of thing as well.

       

      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
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There are two separate rented out properties on a working farm. We moved into one of these in 2015. Our neighbours had been tenants for several years previously. The landlord was the farmer, who rented the whole site from a local country estate and then sublet the houses. The estate were aware of this but chose not to get involved at the time..

Because the whole site was fed by one water supply, water costs were included in the rental agreement. Although it clearly states in our letting agreement (which was a generic document produced by a local estate agent) that we were responsible for water rates, it was fully agreed with the original landlord that the water was included and indeed we have genuinely never been charged or paid anything towards it. I believe our neighbours have an older rental agreement issued direct from the landlord which states this.

In 2020 the original landlord surrendered the whole farm and the estate took over the lettings of both houses. One of the first things they did was to replumb the water supply and put everything on individual meters.

Despite conversations about a new rental agreement direct with the estate this has not yet been offered and our original deposit paid is still being held in the name of the original landlord.

They have however presented us with a bill for nearly £1000 for backdated water supply dating from when they took the properties back "in house" and are now threatening legal action if it is not paid. This just states an amount of money required, but gives no indication how it has been calculated. As I understand it, our neighbours have not received any bill.

I'm not averse to contributing towards the water going forwards if necessary as long as the same arrangement is applied to our neighbours. Prior to this we had by agreement, not paid anything towards the water rates as it was included in the rent. Can they force payment in these circumstances and would "custom and practice" apply from our previous arrangement?

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On the basis of what you say it seems to me that there is at the very least an implied term in your existing contract that the water charges are included in your rent.
It will depend on evidence that you can show that this was indeed the case. Are you able to contact the farmer and get something in writing from him/her that this was the case.
That would be helpful.

If they want to change arrangement then they would have to negotiate a new agreement.

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Okay well I suggest that you get a statement which identifies him, you, your status in respect to the land and the property. How long you have been there, what your rental was and how the bills were arranged including the water charges.

Once you get that then we can look at this more closely but on the basis of what you say it seems to me that there is an implied term and that they would be prevented from seeking payment of arrears.

They could even be some difficulty for them negotiating payment in the future. You have a rental agreement I suppose. How long is this for?

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I also think that the statement should make specific reference to the agreement and the fact that it appears to require that you pay your water rates separately but why in fact the agreement was that this term would not be active and that the water charges should be included in the rent

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Yes but the important thing is that you need to show that there was an agreement between you and the landlord that the written term of the contract would be subordinate to a verbal agreement which had always been in place and that this verbal agreement was that the water charges would be included in the rent.

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