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Showing results for tags 'trading standards'.
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Hi, I'm hoping someone might be able to help me... In August 2015 I purchased a Samsung Galaxy S6 on eBay from what seemed to be a trustworthy "phone company" with very good reviews. I received the phone exactly as described, brand new and sealed and factory unlocked. I have been on a Sim-only contract with Vodafone for a long time and I immediately began using the Sim in the new phone with no problems at all for the next 6 months or so. However, in February 2016 the phone suddenly lost all network coverage and after a few confusing phone calls with Vodafone (which also involved me sending the phone to Samsung to be tested) I finally discovered it had been blacklisted due to having been reported as stolen. Vodafone recommended that I try to get a refund from the seller on eBay or approach PayPal to open a dispute. I soon discovered that the seller had disappeared from eBay (hardly surprising if he knew what he was doing...!) and after explaining the problem to eBay they told me that PayPal should be able to help. However, I have been back and forth with PayPal over the issue and they are point blank refusing to help me due to the fact that the transaction was back in August and it was outside of their specified time cap on opening a case. I understand that this is their policy but I feel that in a situation like this there should be some sort of loophole as how was I to know that I was buying a stolen phone, especially as it was working fine until it was blacklisted!! I have spoken to CACs and trading standards regarding the matter but they simply insisted I keep on at PayPal and that without the seller's home address there's not much that can be done?! I am out of pocket of £380 and the phone is completely useless to me, and at the same time the seller of this phone (and I would guess countless other phones) is getting away with making money from stolen goods. Thank you for any suggestions!
This is a re-post, as I'm having no response from the forum I first posted into. Apologies. I'm gutted. I bought a Disco 2 from a trader 6 weeks ago. Last week I started hearing a loud clicking from the engine and I took it into a reputable Landy garage. They've told me that "someone" has recently worked on the engine to "fix it up" and my crankshaft is completely knackered. They say a new engine is required. This is the advertisement which OFT have obtained from Autotrader: -->13th June: Car advertised in Autotrader as the following: 2001 LAND ROVER DISCOVERY 2.5 Td5 S 5 Seat 5dr Diesel Sw 95,000 miles, excellent condition one owner since new, full service history long mot till may 2012 immaculate bonatti metallic, 1st genuine caller will buy for only £3995, a series 2 landrover discovery td5 for only £3995, this is giveaway price, some old mark 1 discoverys are still comanding £3000, this is a 51 plate series 2 td5 for only £3995, grab this bargain, was £4995, must go this week, be prepared for this winter, be quick, no offers. £3,995 No offers. Tel: 07842 XXXX Telephone Number: 0784XXXXXX When I bought the car, the trader had me sign the usual disclaimer "I understand that this is a used car and accept that it may have faults" etc. Here are the terms printed on the sales invoice: 1. I have been given full opportunity to inspect the vehicle and accept its condition. 2. I am fully aware that this is a used vehicle therefore may have faults. 3. I am fully aware and agree that this vehicle is being sold on the condition that there is no warranty/guarantee been implied or given to me. 4. I agree to purchase this vehicle on the condition that it is to be used for any spares or repairs required to make it roadworthy. 5. I am fully aware that this vehicle should not be used on a public road until it has been made roadworthy and complies with all current road traffic acts and that the responsibility for making the vehicle roadworthy rests with myself. 6. By signing I agree to the above conditions. Point 4 above doesn't even make grammatical sense?? The following is my own document of what has happened so far: 16th June: Car purchased, cash for £3,995 after test drive and drive by seller. Inspection made by me - found welds in chassis at rear and medium rust on chassis throughout. 19th July: Loud clattering noise heard while driving (all speeds) Oil noticed on tarmac under car. Immediately took car to a reputable 4x4 specialist in Larbert. Car now not driven since. 25th July: 2pm Contacted Consumer Direct to inform them of my situation. CD advise to have an independent report made by specialist to clarify fault/s and send letter to Mr XXXXX asking for refund or repair (include copy of report) 25th July: 4x4 specialist verbally reports major faults with crankshaft and cylinders. Not repairable and recommends a new engine is required. Say engine has been "worked on" recently. I am awaiting the written report from them. Cost circa £2,000+ 25th July: 11.00am Contact Dealer Billy Findlay via phone to explain that I didn't think the car was "fit for purpose" and he responded by saying that he is covered by the clause (that I signed) saying the vehicle was sold as "spares and repairs" My next move is to get the written report and send it recorded delivery to the seller asking for Repair or Refund and if it is ignored, try the Small Claims court... Do I have any comeback at all? I'm wondering if the Sale of Goods act applies here, as not fit for purpose? Or misleading advertising? I have had many people offering differing advice, varying from "you don't have a chance" to "you have a good case for redress" Many thanks in advance. D