Where i work one member of staff who does the same job as me is getting 1/2 to 3/4 hour a day off as a "freebie". This 1/2 - 3/4 hour "freebie" is made up of a combination of them being late for work (at least 3 times a week) and one of the drivers dropping them off at the train station before this person's shift officially finishes. Over a year this amounts to nearly 17 - 21 days holiday extra a year for free. To make this worse i have been told that i cannot put a claim for TOIL (time off in lieu) unless the amount per occasion is over 15 minutes. I currently get 1/2 a day's TOIL per month with all the small amounts of overtime i do. They want to use a "give and take" approach. I've no idea what this means. So, i am now losing 6 days holiday a year while the other person get 17 - 21 days extra. I asked in a meeting why lateness was not addressed. I was told tthis persons holiday was docked every time they were late or left early. On that basis this person would only get a week off a year. This is not the case. Even if the time was taken (which it never is) what about the disciplinary action for being late in itself? This person has been late 3/5 or 4/5 days for the last year. Surely that must trigger an effect? I have a meeting about this tomorrow and a question i am going to ask: If i am constantly late will i be disciplined? If the answer is no i'm going to go in constantly late (to prove a point) if the answer is yes i would have to ask why this person has not been sacked ater doing this for nearly 8 years. The manager is just so innefective. Should i just whack a grievance in straight away? If so, how would you word it? Thanks to all for any help you may be able to give.