Hi all, I hope someone can offer me some advice as I am getting very confused! I have had a Samsung Galaxy S3 on contract from Vodafone UK for about 6 months. It has developed a crack in the plastic above the charging port (which is apparently a known manufacturing fault with the early handsets) and I have been attempting to get it repaired via Vodafone UK and Samsung UK (Vodafone currently has it in one of their repair centres). Both Samsung and Vodafone refuse to help me and claim that the crack is physical damage. It isn't, because it is a known issue... I have been reading up about the sales of goods act, and I have noticed that before 6 months the burder of proof to prove that it is a manufacturing fault is on them and not you. However, all this is occurring at just before and just after 6 months... So I have these questions. My 6 month mark (if I am correct, I need to check with Vodafone) is: 7/12/12. I think I sent the phone in around 13/12/12, but I'm pretty sure I reported the fault before then (I can check with Vodafone for this). If I reported the fault before the 6 month mark, would that be considered to be before 6 months within the sales of goods act? Additionally, after I received my handset there was a problem with it (terrible screen) and I had it replaced. I think it took around 2 weeks to receive a replacement. Would I have had a "new" 6 month period in which the sales of goods act covers me against having to prove issues like this? If so, this puts me well with in the period and I can start a proper complains procedure. I am paying a lot of money for this phone over the course of the contract, and Samsung get away with a lot of issues on their recent phones(and they really shouldn't), so I'm starting to get angry here. I'm actually considering taking it further if I do not get anywhere via email. But I need to know the answers to my two questions above before I can proceed! Thanks very much, Richard

Hi guys, Ended up posting here since we're not great with the law, and as ever TalkTalk's phone operators are as useless as always. My girlfriend's family were with TalkTalk for about 5-6 years. Their contract recently expired and they decided to go with BT for their phone/broadband as they were giving out a good offer and also supplied a digibox for iPlayer etc, which TalkTalk were not supplying, etc. My girlfriend's mum was aware she had a 7 day cooling off period on the new contract (why you need to be on a new contract after being with a companty 5+ years is beyond me), and she phoned up to cancel and tell them that they would be moving to BT. The problem starts is that she's an old women now and she's not 100% sure when she phoned up to cancel, and it may have been on the 8th day. Anyway, when she called TalkTalk to cancel their operator processed her cancellation and DID NOT mention ANYTHING about having to pay a cancellation fee (which is why she is sure she cancelled within the 7 days). However, sometime after, my girlfriend recieved an email saying they would have to pay a cancellation fee of £185. When called they give the usual excuses that we because we were with TalkTalk 5+ years we should have known the terms of the contract and that they should have read the small print. They haven't managed to get anywhere talking to them, and they are now recieving letters saying they are going to be forwarded to debt collectors if they do not pay up soon. We're not really sure how to go from here. We are sure the charge is illegal because there was no mention of it when she cancelled (had she been told about it, she would not have bothered in the first place). Is this correct? Is there anyone I can contact in TalkTalk and not get the same usual excuses? Thanks all. We're really confused about this!