In August 2013 I bought a car from a dealer and I arranged insurance through Admiral. The car is due Road Tax at the end of November but since I never received a road tax reminder, I contacted DVLA to find out where it was. DVLA told me the car has not been registered in my name and its still with the previous owner, so the garage has not sent them the new keepers details form. Now considering one of the insurance questions is "Are you registered keeper of the car" which I answered Yes to, does this mean that currently, I am not insured to drive it ? To make matters worse, about 8 weeks ago I was in a crash (my fault - damage to my car and another car) and everything went through the insurance company. What should I do ? Get the car registered in my name asap and forget about the insurance implications as they don't know anything ? Or should I be contacting the insurance company and tell them that, through no fault of my own, I think i wasn't covered when the crash happened. Not sure if the garage would be liable for the repairs here ? Any assistance appreciated. Thanks, Gavin.

A couple of years ago, I put in a claim for a refund of bank charges against the BOS going back many years. Needless to say they knocked back my first letter. I sent a second letter which they said they would investigate......then a few weeks later they replied saying that had investigated, didn't find any wrong doing, original response still stands i.e. I still got knocked back. I never sent anymore letters after that. A combination of moving house and getting married and before I knew it, everything had been put on hold with the test case, etc, etc. So my question is this.........can I still use my original claim from 2 years ago to pursue a refund once the "claims on hold" rule gets lifted......or do I need to submit a new claim which effectively means I lose 2 years money from what I can claim ? I live in Scotland. My original letter was sent in April 2007 and my second letter was sent in May 2007. Many thanks, Gav.

A couple of years ago, I put in a claim for a refund of bank charges against the BOS going back many years. Needless to say they knocked back my first letter. I sent a second letter which they said they would investigate......then a few weeks later they replied saying that had investigated, didn't find any wrong doing, original response still stands i.e. I still got knocked back. I never sent anymore letters after that. A combination of moving house and getting married and before I knew it, everything had been put on hold with the test case, etc, etc. So my question is this.........can I still use my original claim from 2 years ago to pursue a refund once the "claims on hold" rule gets lifted......or do I need to submit a new claim which effectively means I lose 2 years money from what I can claim ? I live in Scotland. My original letter was sent in April 2007 and my second letter was sent in May 2007. Many thanks, Gav.

I sent my desktop back for repair just over 6 weeks ago and PC World have not been in contact with me about it. Therefore under the Performance Agreement terms, I am entitled to a replacement. However the desktop was over 3 years old, so its very unlikley that they will be able to replace like for like, so I wanted to ask if anyone knows what my options are ? Will PC World simply replace with the cheapest desktop they have ? I say this because chances are their cheapest desktop now has a better spec than the one I bought 3 years ago. I have checked the cheapest desktop and although the CPU, memory, HDD are all better, there are some components that it doesn't have that my old desktop did, such as two DVD drives and two firewire ports. Can I reject what they offer if there are any components at all that fall below my original spec, even if their are other components that are better than my original spec ? Also, how likely will they offer vouchers instead of a replacement ? Will they deduct "3 years value" from the original cost (how is this calculated ?) or should the voucher value have to be to allow me to replace with a spec NO LESSER than my original spec. Quite a lot of questions there I know, but wanted to get my facts straight before I contact them. Many thanks.

have a question regarding an extract from the HMRC website(http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/manuals/recmanual/REC2421.htm) "Insufficient Goods - You may still levy distraint even if there may not be enough goods to cover the full amount of the debt and the costs incurred, provided that in the event of a sale, the costs and a reasonable proportion of the debt will be cleared. (This text has been withheld because of exemptions in the Freedom of Information Act 2000)" Does anyone know what percentage HMRC consider a "reasonable proportion" to be in these scenarios ? I would also be grateful if you could also specify whether your answer is definite or an educated guess. Many thanks.

Cheers Rory......that would greatly appreciated.

Thanks very much for your quick answer. Do you know if theres any way she can speed up the process of getting one of these letters ? It has already been dragging on for 5 months. All she gets is letters from either the comanies she owes money to or the debt collection agencies they have passed her details to. But it seems no-one wants to take her to court. All they do is sell the debt on to some other debt collection agency. Citizens Advice Bureau told her not to respond to the letters or telephone them. I'm not sure how this is helping though ?

A friend of mine who lives in Scotland has no job, no assets and thousands of pounds of debt. She wants to make herself bankrupt, however Scottish Law states that in order to apply for self-sequestration, one of her creditors must have served her one of the following :- 1. a Charge for Payment and fourteen days notice have elapsed or, 2. a Statutory Demand and 21 days have elapsed or, 3. an Earnings Arrestment as a result of a Charge for Payment. She has received a letter which is titled "Default notice served under section 87(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974" If she doesnt pay the outstanding amount before 16th January 2008 they will (quoted):- 1. With effect from the date shown, by this notice we terminate the agreement, close your bank account and demand payment imediately of any amount you owe us on your account: and 2. on or after the date shown, we may take legal proceedings against you and/or instruct a debt collection agency to recover any amount you owe uson your account. Does anyone know if this letter is considered a "charge for payment" or a "statutory demand" as per the above ? Many thanks in advance.

Can anyone confirm if the bankruptcy order basically null and voids the walking posession order that HMRC have yet to collect on ?

Thanks everyone......much appreciated. Any further info would be most welcome......cheers.

Heres my situation......... I allowed an HMRC officer into my house to discuss the outstanding income tax bills I hadn't paid. He asked if I could paid the monies there and then and I said no. He then listed the car and all items of value in my house on a walking posession order which I signed. I then had five days to pay the debt or those items would be removed by HMRC bailiffs. Two days later, I went to court and made myself bankrupt. The court successfully granted the bankruptcy order. I am now waiting on the court appointed trustee to contact me to discuss my assets, etc. I have not contacted HMRC to let them know that I am now bankrupt. I have been told that as they are listed as a creditor on the bankruptcy order, the trustee will contact them in due course (Is this correct or should I let them know ?) So my question is this......... 1. Can the HMRC bailiffs still remove the goods on the walking posession order ? 2. Or does the bankruptcy order override the walking posession order and all assets must remain in the house until the trustee arranges for them to be sold off ? If it's the latter, would HMRC basically rip up the walking posession order and leave it up to the trustee to rewrite the asset list ? Many thanks for any help you can give. Cheers Gav.

Hi.......I realise this now.......what confused me was the bit about interest in the prelim template letter. I now realise this is OD interest. Should I really follow up with an amended prelim letter with no interest charges mentioned ?

Now I'm a bit confused. The prelim template states "I calculate that you have taken £XXXXX plus £XXX which you have charged me in overdraft interest for the sum which you have taken". I thought this was what I have done ? If not, how do you calculate overdraft interest ?

I am requesting repayment of the charges plus interest at 8%. So surely it makes sense to have detailed this on my spreadsheet ?

Anyone at all ??