Hi there The VO is telling me they are using the date that they have been given by the council, and the council in turn are saying they are using the date the VO have given them. As part of my application to the council for lawful use I had to submit proof that the property was being used as 2 flats for a minimum of 4 years - I gave post that had been received in August 2007 to support the application. So I think I know where they are getting the date from - the planning office (at the council). My issue is that the residence only became lawful in September 2011 - is it really legal for them to turn around and ask for back payments? Thanks again.

Hello I have recently changed my house into 2 flats and obtained a certificate for lawful use. The council have now sen me bills for both properties dating back to 2007 - it adds up to almost £6000. I've always paid my bills, which they have graciously (!) taken into account, but I am unsure of whether they are allowed to ask me for backdated payment. I was only afforded the certificate of lawful use in September 2011 - surely that is the date from which I would owe council tax on both flat?!?! Can anyone shed any light? Thanks in advance.