Hello All, Thought might be worth adding my thoughts on this topic, I am a ex Barclays Capital employee and worked in Interbank Derivatives Legal Documentation and have moved into Structured Derivatives trading now with a investment management firm I might be able to help shed some light on this or at least help and explain some of your 'rights' which maybe of use / interest. But before that, I would say its a little ridiculous that Barclays Retail / Commercial would assist cross selling derivatives (albeit a vanilla product) without doing full due diligence and profiling of risk. Will point out some following ISDA facts for you to troll through if you feel like. 1. By ISDA provisions you (the buyer) of the swap are entitled to a full long form ISDA confirmation, and have the right to disagree / amend terms within that legally binding document. 2. If the swap is entered under your business name you have right to early termination (a early termination fee would be eligible) 3. You might want to ensure Barcap are discounting at OIS as opposed to LIBOR as OIS is the industry standard now for working out discount factors on cashflows and is a fairer comparison to the actual value of the trade as opposed to LIBOR calculations. 4. Might be worth finding out how the transaction is structured, if Barclays commercial enter the transaction on your behalf (meaning barclays commercial are the counterparty and not you / your business) it raises a lot of technicalities from a claim / complaint process One key thing to note as these appear to be tied in with loans, the actual swap carries very minimal risk as with a typical (fixed for floating swap) the so called principal is not realised cash, but is only used as a basis of merely calculating the interest payments Additionally in most cases at the fixing points, the cashflows are usually netted together and the difference is the actual and only transaction that takes place which from a banks perspective creates less risk on the traders books. a small caveat to the termination fee, essentially if the swap remains until maturity you will have no further cashflows resulting in the trade having a realised value of '0' effectively. If you terminate early the price at current market value on cancellation point will have to be exchanged. If you have further questions or interested in scenario examples, I am happy to plough through my bloomberg terminal and pull off any data that maybe of use to you. Not sure if this is helpful or I am just waffling, its late and my brain is half shut down so forgive me. Thanks.