MrSponge
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Good point. I think I see where you're coming from. I was just looking to get the default removed which it will after a couple of years in any case. What you're saying is that in addition to that I should not acknowledge the debt so that it gets stat barred as well in due time, and I don't end up resetting the clock by offering a F & F (?)
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Please see response above in red
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That's interested. The only thing is that Barclays has sold the debt to Cabot (although there was no CCA).
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I just wanted to try and get the Default removed. The idea being if they don't agree they wont get any money. If they do, I could offer them something. Is it possible they could take this to court? As said they were sold the debt without any CCA (which doesn't exist because I asked barclaycard for 8 months and they were unable to produce it), and the Credit Card is from 1998.
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Thanks, just wanted that confirmed! i.e. regardless of whether payments are being made or not into a defaulted account, the default gets removed 6 years after the default was registered!
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I think this thread has got all muddled. The original post says Cabot bought the debt (£17000) off Barclaycard, and who are now updating my credit file. The default date was Aug 2009 and I am not making any payments to them. I am not looking to getting the debt stat-barred, I am just asking about when the default would get removed. I then have a 2nd CC with Halifax which also defaulted around the same time in Aug 2009, however in this case I have made an arrangement with them to pay £30 a month to bring the balance down, to avoid them taking me to court as they do have a CCA. What I want to know is in each of these cases when will the defaults drop off? I have been told time and time again it will be 6 years from the default date in both these cases, regardless of whether payments are being made or not! If I am wrong then please correct me! Thanks MrSponge
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There are 2 CC's here: With Cabot, yes the default date was Aug 2009 and no payment has been made since Jan 2009. With the other lender, I am making a payment of £30 a month to bring the balance down, and that was also a CC that default date also being Aug 2009. I thought regardless of whether payments are made or not, defaults got removed 6 years from the default date? I think its write-offs that required no payments or acknowledgement of the debt to be made for 6 years?
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Could you tell me if default accounts get removed 6 years from the date of the default or 6 years from the date that the debt is paid off? lookinforinfo replied to my post (see above) says its 6 years from the date the debt is paid off.
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It was always with Barclaycard when I took it out in 1998. I think Cabot are very well aware that there is no CCA. I waited for 8 months for Barclaycard to produce it and they couldn't.
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That's what I was wondering about when I posted this thread
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The CC is with Barclaycard. It was taken out in 1998.
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Thanks for the response lookinforinfo. I thought that default accounts get removed from the date of the default, not the date that the debt is paid off (???) Please correct me if I'm wrong. The reason I'm paying £30 a month is because its a credit card and that is like the minimum payment.
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Hello, I have some more questions that came to mind: 1. Does the whole defaulted account get removed? 2. I have another default with another lender, where I am paying £30 a month, will that also get removed after 6 years? What about my £30 a month payment? How will that get recorded if the whole account gets removed? 3. Who actually removes the defaulted account? Is it the DCA or is it the credit ref agency by way of an automated process? 4. I have another account that had an arrangement-to-pay. The AP ended a couple of years ago and went back into good order with normal payments resumed. Would this be considered as bad as a default in terms of applying for credit? Thanks again for your help MrSponge
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Sure Andy, that is an option. I was just wondering if it might be possible to make a token payment of say £2000 to get the default removed. I was interested in getting a mortgage and finding it very difficult at the moment.
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Hello, I have a default in Aug 2009 with a credit card with a balance of £17000. There is no CCA with the OC and so the debt could not be pursued. This debt was subsequently sold to Cabot despite no CCA in Feb 2011. I told Cabot to get lost as there is no CCA and they can't enforce it. They obliged and got lost. Cabot said something along the lines of 'oops they didn't know that there was no CCA and bought the debt from the OC in good faith'. They left me alone and didn't pursue the debt - that's a couple of years ago now. Saying that they are still updating my credit file which is showing the default and the outstanding balance. My question is this: I know that DCA (Cabot in this case) buy these debts for very little money, and I was wondering if there is a way I could offer to make some payment, on the condition that they remove the default. As it stands they won't get a penny from me and there is nothing they can do about it, however if I make an offer (perhaps 10% of the debt) on the condition that they remove the default on the account, is that something that would that work? I have no experience in this so if someone could tell me if there is a way to go about this, that would be great. Thank you very much in advance MrSponge
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