This is prejudicing a court judgement - it is designed purely to scare, but also legally weakens their case. Unwise.

Hi, I had a Cap1 credit card from April 05 until about April 07. I moved to China for a while, in mid-06, but carried on making Capital One payments (to clear the balance) from my UK bank account. This account however ran dry before I came back to the UK, and I thought I'd just clear off the rest of the Capital One balance with a Visa payment, as suggested on the back of the bill back then. Called them up to do this in Nov 06 and they were fine with it - until they found out that it was a non-UK card (no mention of this anywhere!) and refused to take money from either that or a bank transfer from China. This left me unable to pay, and they said fine, they'd just transfer it to collections. A short while later (Feb 07) they defaulted it and passed it to their collection department, and on the same day I called - there was no notice of default and this is ridiculous! - and cleared the whole amount using the same non-UK visa card (it was Danish). Just noticed that this default is still on my record and it shouldn't be. If they say they accept payment by visa (which they did at the time, I have the original bills) and then refuse it, that is not grounds to default the account. I have already completed an SAR - what's the next step with these guys? Bogg