Stoodent
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"Damages claimed for trespass must be paid to the landlord so unless the clampers and the landowner have a water tight agreement they may be acting unlawfully." I have a question on this point: I know of a situation where the land-owner employs private clampers. The land-owner does not pay the clamping company, and neither do they receive any of the clamp-release fees. The land-owner benefits, I suppose, since people observe parking regs more carefully, and are also better about paying their daily parking fees. Would this arrangement seem to be in breach? If so, of what (is it case law, or some regulation)? What could be done about it? Thank you!
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