I divorced 22 years ago when I was in the Army. I found that my ex wife had run up a lot of debt, in the region of £55k. This was a fraudulent loan in my name for 15k that I managed to prove wasn't me, 3 credit cards, a loan and an overdraft. Unfortunately I was the primary account holder I was responsible for them, even though I only discovered them during the divorce. It took several years but I paid most of them off, all bar one that capquest purchased. Originally I was repaying them £50 a month, but I forgot who I was paying and what I was paying for. I made unsuccessful enquiries with my bank and eventually dropped the payment to £1 a month that I've been paying for the last 10 years or so! It's silly but the reason I refuse to pay it is because of their aggressive attitude when I was broke. I asked why they were chasing me for the debt and not my then wife and they said "We can't find her but we found you". The army didn't forward on any mail for quite some time once I'd left. my query is this...... Am I still liable for the debt after 2 decades? It's probably yes because I pay that £1. I didn't create the debt but I know it defaulted to me. Do I ask for the original credit agreement (I don't even remember if it was a credit card or overdraft). I was never taken to court for it so there was never a CCJ against me for it. No debt shows on my credit file, and hasn't for many years. Capquest try the usual phone calls and endless letters, I never answer and bin the letters. Each year they send me a statement, thanking me for my continued payments and informing me that at my current rate, I will clear the debt in 2167. I expect to have been dead for around a century by then!! I know debts should be paid, but this was never something I created, I just inherited it. Has anyone dealt with very old debts like this? I welcome any advice.

I recently had a mortgage application rejected by Nationwide on the grounds of financial association with another party. I've checked my credit files and those of my partner (who is not on the mortgage application) and no associates are listed. No defaults, ccj's late payments, arrears etc. I have a credit score of 850 to 999 depending on which credit reference agency I look at and was told by the broker that finances aren't the issue. I am at a loss as to how to clear this up. I have never entered into a credit agreement with anyone else. I am not married and my partner divorced over 20 years ago. The lender and broker will not provide any other information so I have no idea how to resolve this. I was wondering if anyone else has been in this situation or can offer advice?