Does anyone know of a precedent for this situation? Many thanks

Many thanks for your help.

stu007, many thanks for your reply but I'm afraid I don't understand it... what agreement/contract are you referring to? And there has never been a CT valuation.

ss002d6252 Many thanks for your reply. The house has been used for both residential and business since the 1970s when they bought it. They've paid domestic rates and then poll tax. An error must have been made by the council/valuation office when addresses were transferred to council taxation. When my dad tried to pay CT at the council offices years ago he was told the house was not on the register and never heard from them again. A letter asking for the situation to be sorted out was ignored by the council. My question is, can that huge amount of backdated CT now be demanded of them? Does it ever lapse?

Hello My parents have never had a council tax bill for their property. They live and work at the same address and pay business rates. According to the council tax valuation records their house does not exist. Now they are retiring and so want to end the business rates, but are scared this could trigger a huge backdated council tax bill. My question is, what is their liability when a council tax bill has never been issued? Many thanks for any replies... this site is a wonderful find! Emma