Thank you all for your help so far on this. So an SAR request was sent off and we have just received back the info. Just as we thought, NO default notices in there, so I assume this puts us in a much better position to get them removed? There are also some letters in there dated the 11th October 2011 (ie the date they did the SAR)?! It makes me think they are trying to forge them, but they are only settlement advices (definitely not default notices) and letters put through the door when they've visited and we weren't in, so I'm not sure what they would be hoping to gain by doing this. With regards to the fees on the accounts, how do I go about trying to reclaim these? As I'm not sure how to work out which ones are unlawful. Thanks again Nikki

Ok thanks guys, if only it was that easy! Both accounts are actually now fully paid off. Yes his payments were below the agreed amount for a period of time a while back (which he then increased at a later date - I do remember them turning up at the door to tell him he wasnt paying enough) but we dont recall ever receiving default notices. And also, the lower payments were paid by DD so surely WF would have set them up? Its a long time ago so we're struggling to recall what happened, and cant find any paperwork. Am I right in thinking that if he submitted an SAR request with £10 for each accounts, they have to provide full information on the accounts, commuincation, notes, fees etc etc? Would that be the next step? Thanks again.

Thanks for your reply Brigadier2JCS. He did in fact originally send a CCA request with £1 fee for each account so the agreement they have sent is not compliant... He also requested true copies of the default notices (with a 28 day deadline) which was not mentioned atall in the previous letter, and they are now over the deadline. Can I just also just confirm that, even if one of the accounts has been closed as it is fully paid off, they still have to provide a copy of the original agreement with a CCA request? Basically, all we want is to try and get these defaults removed. Now that they have failed to comply with the CCA request and also failed to supply default notices within the timeframe, do we have a chance?? Thanks

Can anyone help with this please?

Thanks for your responses, much appreciated. He did submit a SAR request, asking for copies of agreements, full statements and copies of default notices. They have recently replied enclosing the agreement for one of the accounts (which has a very small balance which will be settled with next months DD) but said regarding the other agreement (which is fully paid off): "there is no copy of agreement XXX available due to the account being closed" (??!!) They also said that statement of account(s) has been requested and follow separately, but no mention of copies of default notices. A couple of things don't seem quite right here: 1. Surely they still should provide agreement copies even if the account is paid off? 2. On the agreement they did provide, should this be a copy of the original signed version? As the one they have sent has no date or signature and also has our current address on it...we didn't live at this address when the account was originally opened in 2002. Referring to your comment on reclaiming windfall for fees, how will we know if they are unlawful?? They seem to all just have 'default/conversion fee' as the description (looking at previous statements) Also I don't see how his later default (in 2008) could be due to fees? All the fees are near the beginning of the agreement, and his DD amount dropped later on (in 2005) which I'm guessing is the reason for the 'default 8' status as you describe above. Would he be right in saying to them that, as this lower monthly amount was a DD, it was then obviously setup by them so therefore how can they default the account for not paying enough? Sorry for the length of this and probably my naivety! Thanks very much!

Hi I'm new on here and was looking for some help regarding Welcome Finance. I'm trying to sort out my husbands finances (as he's no good at this sort of thing!) and after recently checking his credit report, noticed that Welcome Finance had defaulted both of his accounts on 31/3/08 (HP and personal loan, opened in 2002). He never used to be great with his finances (before he met his nagging wife!) and there were a few missed payments at the beginning of the agreements (numerous default/conversion fees were added to his account?!) but from looking at statements, all was sorted out at the beginning of 2005 and since then has been making payments by direct debit every month. Neither of us recall ever receiving the default notices (for which he has written to them requesting copies) although I do vaguely remember them contacting him a while ago (possibly back in 2008) to tell him he wasn't paying enough every month. Could this be the reason for the defaults? The payments he was making from 2005 were in fact lower than what he had been paying at the beginning but surely as he was paying by DD, Welcome Finance would be controlling them? Both accounts are now fully paid off. Any advice would be greatly appreciated! Thanks Nikki