Hi, I wonder if you can help me as I'm new here. About six weeks ago I received a letter out of the blue from 1st Credit saying that I owed the £2k which related to a credit card I had some years back. Without going into in depth detail, it came as a suprise as I was sure I had cleared all my debts (having got into financial dificulty) and my credit rating had been repaired as a result of doing so (that and several years wait). I wrote to them saying I did not know anything about the debt. They wrote back sending a copy of the Credit card agreement. I wrote back saying that the debt was statute barred (because of the time involved) and they have just written back saying that it is not and enclosing a 'statement' of payments made to one of their sister companies. Now this 'statement' is nothing more than could be produced on a word processor in 5 minutes and, whilst I do remember paying money to this other company, I seem to remember that it related to another credit card which was subsequently cleared. Unfortunately, when I thought all my debts had been cleared I cleared out all my old paperwork so have nothing to prove this and, having done some trawling on 1st Credit, I am suspicious that the 'statement' they have sent me might not be wholly representative of the true state of play (i.e yes, I made those payments but they were for another debt and not this one but have been manipulated to suggest that I have made payments against this new debt in the last six years.) my question is really this: can I question this 'statement' to test is validity and who is the onus on to prove that the debt is statute barred? I'm kicking myself now for clearing out my old paperwork,..