It seems the FTC employees in question only have 6 months continual employment at the school. Does this make any difference to the case. I understand you need 1 year continual service to make an unfair dismissal claim?

Thank you SarEI That is very helpful and makes things a lot clearer. I can see what you mean now by your earlier post on the value of fixed term contracts!

Thank You SarEI In this case the "objective reason" given at the start of the 2 year period for fixed term rather than perm contracts was the uncertainty over pupil numbers. This is now also the business reason given for the potential redundancies. I think that the school could make a case for terminating the fixed term contracts on this basis?

Thanks for the shout pggj - very helpful........I think.......

Thanks Atlas 01. I can see why the school has decided to include all 7 staff in the pool. They wouldn't want to leave themselves open to a claim of discrimination by the FT employees who need to be also treated fairly. The most likely outcome of the consultancy, however, is that 2 perms will be made redundant. The 2 FTs are younger, cheaper and perhaps more aligned to the thinking of a relatively new Head. The 5 perms are older more expensive and perhaps a bit "set in their ways". The point I was really exploring is the apparent anomaly this could create. i.e A perm role is made redundant but then filled again by an extended fixed term or a fixed term to perm appointment. Do you think this would give grounds for a claim for unfair dismissal?

Good point Atlas. They are 2 year fixed term contracts ending on 31st August 2011. They have not been subject to any renewal as yet.

Hi everyone, My sister works in a small school with 7 teaching staff. 2 of the staff are on fixed term contracts with an end date of 31st August 2011. The Headteacher has recently written to all teaching staff informing them that if pupil numbers do not increase then 2 members of staff will be at risk of redundancy from 31st August 2011. How can the permanent staff roles be at risk when the most obvious course of action would be to just not extend or renew the fixed term contracts? Does anyone know? If a perm was made redundant then that post would need to be filled by either extending or making permanent one of the employees on fixed term.. Surely this means that the post was never redundant in the first place? Thanks