Hi all, Last week one of my friends bought a second hand Vauxhall Corsa from a small garage (unsure whether a limited company or a sole trader). The car was advertised as in very good condition, very reliable etc. It was sold with 12 month mot (mot done at the same garage) After the purchase my friend took the car to a local garage to have it checked out. His mechanic said the car was a pile of rubbish and it was unroadworthy. There is a major problem with the engine and one of the sensors was disconnected and hidden. When connected, the engine light came on the dash. The mechanic said that the cost of repair would be more than the car is worth and the engine could blow up any minute:???: The day after purchase my friend asked me for some advice so I told him he could reject the car under the soga. I drafted the letter for him and he sent it off by first class recorded on the next day (last thursday) He called me this morning to inform me that the guy responded to his letter by spilling acid over the car Apparently the car is now a write off. Even though it was insured, it was third party only... My mate is entirely convinced that this was done by the guy who sold him the car and that's what he told police. Obviously they will not be able to prove it. The car has done about 20 miles since it was purchased (the garage is located about 15 miles from where my mate lives) Who takes the risk after the car was formally rejected? Is it the person who is in possession of the car? I doubt my friend will now be able to recover all the money although I think there are 2 things he can still do: 1. Request for the engine to be repaired 2. Report the garage/ the guy to the police for selling a car which was unroadworthy under the RTA 1988 Thanks guys

Hi guys. My friend bought a car on hp for £8000 about 2 months ago. The car had just over 30000miles on the clock. My friend has a problem with the following bits: faulty air con, faulty alternator. The air con has now been 'repaired' 2 or 3 times and it's still faulty and the alternator has just gone. The dealer (Vauxhall) rejects any liability for the repair of the alternator. As mentioned before the air con has been re-filled so it works for few weeks and then stops working again. I assume that under the Sales of Goods Act 1979 the dealer has to repair the car as it is clearly of unsatisfactory condition and not fit for its purpose. But is there any chance he could reject the car or p/ex it for another vehicle? Or does it depend the wording of the agreement. Thanks

Hi guys. My question is quite unusual I suppose. In march my mom was giving me a lift to uni. She turned into a narrow side road to drop me off and was intending to carry on going straight ahead. I recall a woman who also turned into the same road and when my mom stopped she was waiting behind. I went into uni and few hours later I received a call from my mom, who told me that the woman drove into the back of my mom's cars and now claims that my mom was reversing?! Apparently when my mom slowed down she felt a bump. She got out of her car looked at it and said to the woman that nothing had happened as there was not even a single scratch on our car. The woman then said that her car was damaged and my mom was reversing which is a lie. Because my mom did not even have her mobile on her she returned home (we live about 5 mins drive from uni), took a camera and came back to the place where it happened. The woman's car was parked on a car park nearby(you have to use the 'side road' to access the car park) so my mom took some pictures of both cars. As I said before there was no damage to our car and the other car had some old scuffs cover in dust etc. It was obvious that the damage was not caused by the incident. She first claimed that she had a witness but the claim's got to court now and my mom's solicitor said there was no witness. I study law and even if you consider basics, there has to be causation. There also has to be damage. I do not think that we will be able to prove that the damage was there before, even though both sides of her front bumper were scratched etc. But what happens with the presumption that the person who drives into the back of your other car is at fault? It would be absolutely pointless for my mom to reverse in that situation. She knows that road as she often drops me of at uni and uses it to avoid traffic lights. What's the best to handle it guys?