This is all very interesting. I have an old debt in UK from about 1999 for 5500 pounds from HFC Bank. At the time I made a voluntary agreement to pay 1 pound a month in return for no interest or fees being added. That agreement is still in force and is being paid (by my mother in UK). There was no way I could have paid 150 pound a month at that time which is what they were asking for. I have been resident in the USA since 1996 and am now a US Citizen. Just last week my mother gets a phone call from TBI asking about me because they have taken over the debt and claim that the money hasn't been paid for some time. She gives them my email addy and address here in the USA. This week I get an email first saying why haven't you replied to the original email (which I never got). I replied I didn't get the first email. Then they resend the first one which states the payment on the account is up to date and they asked my mother to cancel the direct debt (it's a standing order) so that I can set up monthly payments (yeah right..from USA with variable exchange rates and wire-transfer fees!). I haven't replied to them yet and the email shows the account is paid up to date...so much for the lie about it not being paid for some time. Is the debt legally enforcable now after 10yrs? I know about the rules on contact with the creditor meaning the 6yr clock is never started but was a CCJ ever issued against me by HFC in the first place? I never had a copy of it if it were. How would I find out if one was issued originally within that first 6yr period? I believe if a CCJ was never issued, they can't get one now. Thanks.