However it could be argued that in this case, since the employee has to travel to reach his clients, part of the working day that SHOULD be paid is the time taken travelling to visit clients when this is a regular part of the job.

Do you always finish at 19.30, or are there days you might have a couple of short jobs near home and be back an hour or two early? Is there any allowance for that sort of thing built in? Or are you using 19.30 as an example finish time where the last half hour of your working day is unpaid (so a 17.30 finish day is paid to 17.00)?

An employee should receive something in writing stating the terms and conditions of employment within 2 months of starting a job (though this is not necessarily a contract, contracts may be verbal) which includes pay, hours, holiday entitlement, etc. Changes to contract may be made verbally, but any changes in terms and conditions should, again, be in writing. Changes to the terms SHOULD be negotiated, unless there's very good reason not to. By continuing to work you are deemed to have accepted the changes. There are no laws regards pay for overtime etc, just that you must be paid above the minimum hourly rate averaged out over all hours worked. There are also implied and assumed terms - things that should be obvious from the nature of a job - e.g. if you are in the middle of something crucial, it may not be appropriate to just leave at 5.30pm but to finish the task in hand first. Likewise, if there is nothing to do on a particular day, your employer could be wasting money keeping everyone in and the company is better off sending people home early. You are not alone in having hours cut as many people are having this in order to ensure a business' survival at the moment. If it worries you, you must talk to your boss and find out if it's a permanent thing and where you stand. You really also need to ask your employer for written T&Cs of your position and work it out from there. You are entitled to receive these.

It's a long time since I had dealing with the CSA (on both sides of the fence - first with my ex-husband's first wife leaving us broke and later after we split up I was made to make a claim as I was on benefits for a while. Was still over four years until I had anything out of them, mind, and I'd been working for three years ny then! Anyhow, I digress...) in terms of what's allowed and what's not, and I believe rules have changed fairly recently so it may depend on the date of the first claim, but if I recall correctly (and do remember that this may be slightly flawed)... A new partner's earnings/income would not be taken into account, so whether they're on £5 a week or £500 a week it should not affect the calculations on the 'absent parent'. All other children should be taken into account, whether the absent parent lives with the new children or not, and a deduction from the calcualtion made per child according to their age. I don't think the parent with care's income matters unless they're on benefits (when they start to remove some of the benefit in relation to money paid in maintenance). But, I do know that once they've finally sorted a claim out, they're very strict on arrears. Not much help, I'm afraid, but might be some things worth checking out (like whether any new children have been accounted for in the calculations)

Thanks for the reply. I had guessed what was likely to be said on the default notice and BoS, but had to get someone to say so for peace of mind!

Oh, the other thing was that my Bill of Sale is not well printed. In the branch where I signed up, the printer was almost out of ink so the whole thing is quite pale but down the left hand side (to about 3 or four words in on each line) is partly unreadable. A reasonably intelligent person should be able to figure out what's supposed to being said, but surely it should be completely readable to be able to claim full understanding of the document? Clutching at straws, I know, but could that render it invalid in any way?

Hi I've been doing a lot of reading on Logbook Loans - I wondered if any of you knowledgeable people could answer a couple of things for me. To give a brief background - I am about £500 away from paying of a total of £1600-odd (so the initial loan amount is covered, but I understand they take payment towards fees and interest before the initial loan amount). I fell behind a little while ago and received a default notice, but paid the arrears within the time specified - effectively voiding the notice? However, circumstances mean I'm still struggling and I'm likely to start to fall behind again very soon. So, first question - would that first default still actually apply should they decide to claim my car and so they could just turn up without warning, or would they first need to issue another default notice? Second - regards the 'breaking and entering' terms in the Bill of Sale, would that apply to just a garage or similar, or can they break into the house to get keys (I didn't have a spare to give them). Since it says they can break into property 'owned' by me, will I even get a chance to say I don't own the place I live in before they wreck it? And, finally - from what I understand of a Bill of Sale, it must be witnessed by someone "not being a party or parties thereto". Like most people, my Bill of Sale is witnessed only by the LBL sales person with an address reading simply "Log Book Loans"- is this a legitimate reason to void the Bill of Sale or have they a reason as to why this would be allowed? I had considered sending off to find out the date of registration of the Bill of Sale (if it was indeed registered) thinking it cost £5 from one thread, but then I see it's now £40 - does it really cost £40? I would do it if it was for £5, but can't afford £40. I wonder if they're trying to prevent everyone who's gone for one of these loans sending them requests! I don't really want to upset things by asking LBL for a copy, since it might get them twitchy about what I might be planning (which I am not). Thanks for reading - that turned into quite a post