Any help please!!

Thanks, is there anything i would need to write or how do i word the letter?

Well i looked at my staement in December and saw i was paying the £25 min paymant and complained and got told that this has been in place since late 2009 and they were turning on all people to this new system. She pointed out i must have thrown away the letter that said it was increasing, looking at my statements it looks like i was paying £25 min for upto 12 months or further . Yesterday i recieved a letter for both cards telling me the terms and conditions had changed and from april 2011 the payment will increase to £25 etc. I moved all outstanding credit which was £800 over 2 card which meant a £50 min payment to a 0% deal. What i would like to know is whether i can do anything about the breach of terms and conditions by MBNA.

Well i looked at my staement in December and saw i was paying the £25 min paymant and complained and got told that this has been in place since late 2009 and they were turning on all people to this new system. She pointed out i must have thrown away the letter that said it was increasing, looking at my statements it looks like i was paying £25 min for upto 12 months or further . Yesterday i recieved a letter for both cards telling me the terms and conditions had changed and from april 2011 the payment will increase to £25 etc. I moved all outstanding credit which was £800 over 2 card which meant a £50 min payment to a 0% deal. What i would like to know is whether i can do anything about the breach of terms and conditions by MBNA.

Any help please

help please

The legal charge states the loan agreement for this charge needs to be covered by the credit act of 1974 but the loan agreement states that it is not covered by the credit act of 1974. I am totally confused Help!!!!

I am totally lost? Not sure what you are trying to say. If i default they could they have a case for repossession or not ? As they have quoted the date as the 3rd not the 4th or 9th when they signed the loan document does this mean that the charge is invalid and not enforceable due to the incorrect date on the charge? Also can i get the charge removed by the land registry as the date is wrong? Thus making the loan worthless and incorrect?

Just looking through the agreement again i signed to accept the loan on the 4th july 2007 and have Fp 's signature on the back as the 9th july 2007, looking at the deeds again it says: 7 (18.07.2007) Charge dated 3 July 2007 in favour of FP Group PLC How can this be as i didnt sign until the 4th july then had to send off and such like they didnt sign until the 9th July ,am i right in thinking that as the dates are wrong ie the 3rd july that this means the charge is inforceable as they didnt have my agreement until after the 3rd july?

I was under the impression that my lender held copies of the deeds. So i can sell the house without FP's consent but can they foreclose on the agreement as it states they should have a restriction on the deeds which they do not. So i was thinking the agreement is unforcable due to this. If they have a legal charge on the registry why do they want me to sign the forms?

Proprietorship Register This register specifies the class of title and identifies the owner. It contains any entries that affect the right of disposal. Title absolute 4 (19.07.2006) RESTRICTION: No disposition of the registered estate by the proprietor of the registered estate is to be registered without a written consent signed by the proprietor for the time being of the Charge dated 17 July 2006 in favour of My Building Society referred to in the Charges Register. No mention of first plus in this section which on the application form says that it must have? But it has this in the last section of the deed: C: Charges Register This register contains any charges and other matters that affect the land. 7 (18.07.2007) Charge dated 3 July 2007 in favour of FP Group PLC. Hope this helps you see how i am confused?

presumably this was a secured loan. QUESTIONS one how much was the loan £50000 second what date was it taken out 04/07/07 third do you have the original agreement Photocopy fourth are the loan providers a different bank to the original mortgagee No different firm well know from adverts and has the lady who used to work on a channel 4 program. This is the 3rd letter they have asked me to sign over the term of the loan i have this one and the one below but chucked the first one in 2008: Due to admin issues we have not been able to register our charge at the land registry. As a result we now require you to complete a new mortgage authority form. We offer you £50 in m&s vouchers if you complete in one week. I have check the online copy of my title deeds and it says they have a charge,but if they havent asked my mortgage company is it inforcable.

Just received another letter from them: In order to finalise matters with the Land registry, we require consent from your mortgage lender to the registration of our legal charge. You may have signed a consent authority before, but some lenders will only allow these authorities to be accepted for a maximum term of 3 months. If the lender is unable to provide us with consent within that timescale, we request our cusyomers provide a further authority for us to approach the first lender for consent to the registration of our charge. Can someone help decode this for me.I thought that if they havent got acceptance within the 3 months then basically they have no charge on the property, is this correct? They are basically asking for permission again to put a charge on the property correct? According to land registry they have a charge? But looking at that they havent? Can anyone help as i do not want to default if they can take my house as they have offered a poor 3 months reduced payments of £50 but add them on the 3 months after.

Do you mean house insurance and such like? I have taken advice and they where on about contingency fee agreements.# Thanks for your advice anymore will be welcome.

They consulted with employee reps about scoring system and briefed the sections and sent out letters telling people about how thw company needed to shed jobs and there were going to use a scoring system to achieve this but never spoke any employees directly in my wifes section about there positions being at risk until she got the letter stating she was at risk but everyone else in her section got a letter telling them they were safe

They have said there are jobs avalible in other areas of the company but my wife would have to apply for the positions and all are 30 miles away from current location. The problem is she is not qualified for any of them and she told them that , the hr manager said you might of been qualified , at that point the wife said i have worked on your line for the 14 years you should know what i am qualified to do. She was informed by brief and letter 2 months ago with her section that they could be made redudant asked for vols from within.Then 2 weeks ago got a letter along with others in her section. She was i the only one being made of risk of redudancy and she was the only one with the scoring record.A meeting was arranged for the week after this was the informal one to one where she put her points across but the compny didnt want to listen to her points of views and she even offered part time , job share , si-batical , maternity cover but not acceptable. She was told to ring the companies agency and put her self on the books and work could pick up in a couple of months and she would be top of there list as a temp worker The cheek!!! The company are trying to follow the acas rules by having this meeting and only saying at risk but nothing she says can get them to change there minds even when there dont answer the questions and follow they policies.

My wife had a meeting with the company but it was not formal and no minutes were taken. She was told she could appeal against the deceision but that about it really. She took someone in with her but the company could not answer any of her questions reagrding her redundancy other than the system was fair etc etc. She has a letter recieved today from them telling her she is only at risk of redundancy but when she asked before last weeks meeting she was told she had no job at her employer S, so i didnt matter what she said at that meeting it wouldnt have made any differance to the outcome. 1, Why didnt they discipline her about her attendance as stated in there sickness ploicy? Didnt feel it was neccessary they said then they make her redundant on that sickness score. 2, Quality marked at 15 points can you tell me the time scales and show me my quality records? Couldnt tell her the time scale and only produced 8 months of records which when looked at gives my wife an above the quality average score. I feel she has been unfairly dismissed based on them not following there sickness policy and not scoring correctly plus they will not provide the score of the next person (so looks like she would always be 1 point short) Thanks

Bumped

Hello, my wife has been given notice of her redundancy and attended a meeting today to discuss this further. Firstly she was told her job was at risk but when she phoned the HR manager next day she was told there was no job for her there any more. When we looked at her scores she scored low on attendance. shes had 7 occasions off sick in 2 years. 1 - 17 days death of her mother 2- 4 days sickness 3- 2 days when she found out i needed heart operation. 4- 2 days stomach upset when i had ct scan 5 -2 days stomach upset 6- 1 day stomach upset 7- 2 days stomach upset I think we would all agree excessive over 2 year period. The problem i have is that they have a policy stating after 3 occasions of sickness that they would be a meeting between manager and herself to discuss this she had no meeting and they had the option of doing this twice at the end of 2007, she was told in the meeting that the company did not feel it was Necessary as she was going through difficult times but if she had had the warning she would of kept an eye on her attendance but the company deem it not Necessary they it shouldnt be included. The next point is they have a sickness scoring system in place over 1 year but decided to use one other 2 years. The 3rd problem i have is that my wife applied to change from part time to full time in nov 2008 and was told they would look at her records including attendance to make there decisions and at that time deem acceptable since then she has not had any time off. The next problem i have is i asked for the time period over which the Efficiencies and quality were taken which she did not know although we have quality feedback foe 8 months march through to dec 2008. She was also marked down 5 points for quality as she was spoken to once over this period, we have asked for documented proof which they cant supply but looking through her record she has 6 defective parts out of 25,000 giving her 99.7% the target for her area taken from her apparisal is 98.5% which leds to believe why would she need to be spoken to as above target and the 6 defects spread evenly over the year. She scored highly in all areas accept her attendance but was never discipline over her attendance and is one of the most highly skilled people on that process with excellent quality and Efficiencies no disciplinary record and no lates. I am at a loss , please help

Hi Took out a loan with first plus but they have asked me twice to resign a second charge form again. Now i have checked on land registry and a charge is there. My question is : Is it inforcable if they do not have the orginal? If i default can they still take my house off me? Should i issue a sar on them and see if they have a copy? Any advice would be grateful as i have had a reduction in hours and money.

So does this mean if i default it will be treated as a personel loan rather then haveing house taken from me? or do they still have the option to do this if i default? I might be lossing my job 50/50 thats why am asking.

and How will this help? They have stated that they did not registar a charge against the house and also offered me £50 in m&s vouchers to complete the form.

Whats a subject access request?

Hello, Just received a letter today from first plus regarding a second loan on my house. When i took out the loan i signed a authority of first mortgagees form and received payment. Just received a letter today asking for me to sign the form again as they have lost it and as such not been able register a charge at the land registry. 1, Am i right in thinking that they have no hold over the house ie cannot repossess the house? 2, Should i sign it and send back or is it there bad luck? 3, I am not looking to default on the loan but if things get tight you never know so asking questions now so i have the information i need just in case as i would rather pay a reduced amount than have the house repossessed. thanks in advance. Steve

Count me in on this one they are getting right on my nerves and need bringing down a peg or 2