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GE Capital the little darlings...


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I bought a car in 2004 by way of a 'motor loan' ie unsecured I own the car from day one etc. Why then does it show up on an HPI check has having finance secured on it. I have a feeling they are being a little naughty here, sort of not wanting to use HP so you don't have VT rights but on the other hand even though I'm supposed to own the car and just owe GE money I don't as per the HPI check, hope that makes sense.


I was wondering who, if Trading standards, consumer credit or OFT my have some clout if contacted them after I write a letter to GE.


Any pointers would be appreciated.



FYI: Apprently the agreement has been sold to Asset link.




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