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    • Oil and gold prices have jumped, while shares have fallen.View the full article
    • Thank you for your reply, DX! I was not under the impression that paying it off would remove it from my file. My file is already trashed so it would make very little difference to any credit score. I am not certain if I can claim compensation for a damaged credit score though. Or for them reporting incorrect information for over 10 years? The original debt has been reported since 2013 as an EE debt even though they had sold it in 2014. It appears to be a breach of the Data Protection Act 1998 Section 13 and this all should have come to a head when I paid the £69 in September 2022, or so I thought. The £69 was in addition to the original outstanding balance and not sent to a DCA. Even if I had paid the full balance demanded by the DCA back in 2014 then the £69 would still have been outstanding with EE. If it turns out I have no claim then so be it. Sometimes there's not always a claim if there's blame. The CRA's will not give any reason for not removing it. They simply say it is not their information and refer me to EE. More to the point EE had my updated details since 2022 yet failed to contact me. I have been present on the electoral roll since 2012 so was traceable and I think EE have been negligent in reporting an account as in payment arrangement when in fact it had been sold to a DCA. In my mind what should have happened was the account should have been defaulted before it was closed and sold to the DCA who would then have made a new entry on my credit file with the correct details. However, a further £69 of charges were applied AFTER it was sent to the DCA and it was left open on EE systems. The account was then being reported twice. Once with EE as open with a payment arrangement for the £69 balance which has continued since 2013 and once with the DCA who reported it as defaulted in 2014 and it subsequently dropped off and was written off by the DCA, LOWELL in 2021. I am quite happy for EE to place a closed account on my credit file, marked as satisfied. However, it is clear to me that them reporting an open account with payment arrangement when the balance is £0 and the original debt has been written off is incorrect? Am I wrong?
    • OMG! I Know! .... someone here with a chance to sue Highview for breach of GDPR with a very good chance of winning, I was excited reading it especially after all the work put in by site members and thinking he could hammer them for £££'s and then, the OP disappeared half way through. Although you never know the reason so all I can say is I hope the OP is alive and well regardless. I'd relish the chance to do them for that if they breached my GDPR.
    • The streaming giant also said it added 9.3 million subscribers in the first three months of the year.View the full article
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    • If you are buying a used car – you need to read this survival guide.
      • 1 reply
    • Hello,

      On 15/1/24 booked appointment with Big Motoring World (BMW) to view a mini on 17/1/24 at 8pm at their Enfield dealership.  

      Car was dirty and test drive was two circuits of roundabout on entry to the showroom.  Was p/x my car and rushed by sales exec and a manager into buying the mini and a 3yr warranty that night, sale all wrapped up by 10pm.  They strongly advised me taking warranty out on car that age (2017) and confirmed it was honoured at over 500 UK registered garages.

      The next day, 18/1/24 noticed amber engine warning light on dashboard , immediately phoned BMW aftercare team to ask for it to be investigated asap at nearest garage to me. After 15 mins on hold was told only their 5 service centres across the UK can deal with car issues with earliest date for inspection in March ! Said I’m not happy with that given what sales team advised or driving car. Told an amber warning light only advisory so to drive with caution and call back when light goes red.

      I’m not happy to do this, drive the car or with the after care experience (a sign of further stresses to come) so want a refund and to return the car asap.

      Please can you advise what I need to do today to get this done. 
       

      Many thanks 
      • 81 replies
    • Housing Association property flooding. https://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/topic/438641-housing-association-property-flooding/&do=findComment&comment=5124299
      • 161 replies
    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

      Frankly I don't think that is any accident.

      One of the points that the judge made was that the customers contract with the broker specifically refers to the courier – and it is clear that the courier knows that they are acting for a third party. There is no need to name the third party. They just have to be recognisably part of a class of person – such as a sender or a recipient of the parcel.

      Please note that a recent case against UPS failed on exactly the same issue with the judge held that the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999 did not apply.

      We will be getting that transcript very soon. We will look at it and we will understand how the judge made such catastrophic mistakes. It was a very poor judgement.
      We will be recommending that people do include this adverse judgement in their bundle so that when they go to county court the judge will see both sides and see the arguments against this adverse judgement.
      Also, we will be to demonstrate to the judge that we are fair-minded and that we don't mind bringing everything to the attention of the judge even if it is against our own interests.
      This is good ethical practice.

      It would be very nice if the parcel delivery companies – including EVRi – practised this kind of thing as well.

       

      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
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FORGET s.32 Limitations Act - there's a better way...


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Following on from a discussion in someone else's bank thread, I thought this deserved a more public airing. Wastn't sure whether to post this here or in General forum where it might get more of a viewing..anyway if the mods think it appropriate perhaps it could be moved or copied in both.

 

I believe "dad" has stumbled upon a new way of successfully claiming back charges beyond 6 years... This is based on the nature of the bank-customer relationship being contractual and their obligation to repay money we have deposited in our account upon receiving formal demand from us. So we send them our preliminary request for the repayment of our money (our formal demand) and when they refuse they breach the contract. This event becomes our cause of action. Up until now we have been treating the charges as the cause of action and if they are older than 6 years, seeking relief from the limitation period under s.32 LA. The charges are not the relevant date or cause of action because we did not demand repayment of our money at that time, they did not refuse at that time and therefore no breach occured and we had no cause to start an action at court.

 

As long as we raise our court claim within 6 years of sending our prelim letter, we are within the limitation period. I don't think this would apply to credit cards, because the contractual relationship is completely different from the banking relationship.

 

here is the original post by dad on 8 Feb which cites the relevant case (NOTE - his bank dropped their limitation defence)

 

Well hearing was a bit of a mixed bag.

 

Anyway the bank had intended to claim limitation but did not raise the issue at the hearing having received my counter argument. The judge even asked if they wanted to claim limitation and his eyebrows went up when the bank's barrister said that they did not. So this line has not been tried but appears strong.

 

The argument is based on the following Court of Appeal case:

 

Joachimson v Swiss Bank Corporation [1921] 3 KB 110

 

The court held that for time to start running for limitation there needed to be a demand for payment from the customer. In his judgement Atkin LJ pointed out:

 

‘The practical bearing of this decision [as to the necessity for a demand] is on the question of the Statute of Limitations … The result of this decision will be that for the future bankers may have to face legal claims for balances on accounts that have remained dormant for more than six years.’

 

As a result of this judgement time only starts to run against you from your demand for repayment ie your first letter asking for repayment. You then have six years to claim.

 

Hope this helps

 

Dad

 

Unfortunately he doesn't appear to have a dedicated thread to his claim, this was posted in someone elses thread.

 

and my discussion with the phoenix in his thread is here http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/hsbc-bank/6956-my-6-year-claim-6.html#post556791

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I have been wondering whether it would necessitate changing the basis of our claims to maybe damages for breach of contract? just a thought..

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I read something similar here a while ago, possibly from someone who knew a barrister? they said the limitations applied in the same way, as in you have 6 years from when you discover the charges are unlawful in which to make your claim.

 

This thread seems to add more reasoning to why this is so, I definitely think it is a strong argument.

If you found this post useful please click on the scales above.

 

Egg - £400 - Prelim sent. On hold.

Mint - On the list Est £800

GE Capital - On the list (3 accounts!) Est £4000

 

MBNA - £545 Prelim sent 13/11/2006

LBA sent 1/12/2006

£350 partial payment received 18/12/2006.

Full settlement received 20/1/07

 

NatWest - Est £4000 not incl interest

Data Protection Act Sent 10/1/07

Statements received 24/1/07

Prelim sent 3/2/07

Full Settlement received 22/2/07

 

The contents of this post are the sole opinions of The Cornflake and not necessarily the opinions of any other members of this group. They do not constitute sound legal or financial advice and if in doubt you are advised to seek advice from a qualified professional

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Hi, I've got a claim in against A&L for 7 yrs and i am lucking forward to using this argument, seems so straightforward. I've been trying to get my head round the limitations act...not that the bank has mentioned it YET...cant wait.

Jenny

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Guest Battleaxe

I was told by the AMICUS solicitor that is six years to make the claim, not you can only claim six years.

 

I was always of this understanding and when it was clarified for me, I knew I was rtight in law and the six years back dated was not correct.

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Now that is a very very interesting approach, Bong!

I think I need to revisit this at the weekend to think longer about it.....certainly has my appetite whetted though :)

 

Cheers

 

Michael

Please note that the right to reproduce any part of any post I make on this forum is restricted under copyright law.

 

Please see the following copyright statement

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I was told by the AMICUS solicitor that is six years to make the claim, not you can only claim six years.

 

I was always of this understanding and when it was clarified for me, I knew I was rtight in law and the six years back dated was not correct.

 

I'm of the same thoughts, that we have 6 years to claim, not you can only claim 6 for years worth.

 

Take a mortgage situation. Your still owe on your mortage after you thought you had paid it off. The mortgage company would then have up to 12 years to claim the money from you. They are aware of the breach (none payment of account), them they allowed upto 12 years to claim this back under the limitations act.

Same as our situation, we are aware of the charges now and they refuse to pay upon first request, we then have 6 years to claim our charges.

There does not seem to be any reference to how far back you can claim.

 

Although the mortgage situation is for a fixed amount, in one time frame not penalty charges over a period of time.

 

Any more thoughts on this, as I'm about to put in a further 7 claims and theres a positive legal angle on this, I would like to claim for more than the 6 years. :D

 

Great site by the way. :) :)

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If you look at the miners, the asbestos claims and the tobacco claims, you will see that the limitation date commences from the date of discovery. Where you have been wrongued, you may claim from the limitation of the date you first realised you had incurred a loss or damage.

 

I got all of my data including computer logs via my dpa request. If they fail to provide this info, you need to request a confirmation of destruction, the method of destruction, and an assurance that they have retracted your personal information from all sources to whom it has been communicated, particularly the CRA's.

 

My claim started from the date I discovered it.

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tide, I think you are missing the point of my post. This is providing an alternative route to s.32 - assuming I have understood correctly the effect of the case cited by dad.

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just to let you all know I have PMd BankFodder and zootscoot this week asking if they wouldn't mind stating their opinions.

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I'm of the same thoughts, that we have 6 years to claim, not you can only claim 6 for years worth.

 

I think these two are the same thing.

 

"An action founded on simple contract shall not be brought after the expiration of six years from the date on which the cause of action accrued." (Limitations Act 1980 s5)

 

If the cause of action was the placing of a charge by the bank then we have six years after the charge was made to bring an action (in court). So, today, the oldest charge I can claim for is one placed 6 years ago: the older ones are barred by the Act.

 

However, the Act also allows for the situation where the cause of action happened but you didn't know because the perpetrator hid it or you made a mistake in thinking they were allowed to do what they were doing (charging you) then the 6 years starts from the day you discover the truth (s32).

 

(NOTE - his bank dropped their limitation defence)

 

Being cynical, I'm not sure you can read too much into this. Perhaps the banks are so desperate not to go to court they will ultimately drop ANY defence.

 

 

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Apologies Bong,

 

Are you saying that the limitation date runs from the first point of contact? Could this apply to your first complaint / prelim? This would be the only proof they would have that you were aware that a wrong had taken place, if they were to provide any documents to back up their defence in Court.

 

Tide

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The concept of a breach of contract on the part of the bank is appealing as long as there is a contract to breach. If the account from which one is claiming repayment of charges no longer exists, because it has been closed by either party, then surely there is no contract to breach.

 

Because all such charges being claimed are more than six years old, otherwise they would not be contentious, that will mean that many of the accounts (like one of mine) will have been closed.

 

There is a new approach here http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/general/66227-limitation-act-1980-s32.html which relies on a breach of duty rather than a breach of contract, which I find very appealing.

 

Elsinore

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Following on from a discussion in someone else's bank thread, I thought this deserved a more public airing. Wastn't sure whether to post this here or in General forum where it might get more of a viewing..anyway if the mods think it appropriate perhaps it could be moved or copied in both.

 

I believe "dad" has stumbled upon a new way of successfully claiming back charges beyond 6 years... This is based on the nature of the bank-customer relationship being contractual and their obligation to repay money we have deposited in our account upon receiving formal demand from us. So we send them our preliminary request for the repayment of our money (our formal demand) and when they refuse they breach the contract. This event becomes our cause of action. Up until now we have been treating the charges as the cause of action and if they are older than 6 years, seeking relief from the limitation period under s.32 LA. The charges are not the relevant date or cause of action because we did not demand repayment of our money at that time, they did not refuse at that time and therefore no breach occured and we had no cause to start an action at court.

 

As long as we raise our court claim within 6 years of sending our prelim letter, we are within the limitation period. I don't think this would apply to credit cards, because the contractual relationship is completely different from the banking relationship.

 

here is the original post by dad on 8 Feb which cites the relevant case (NOTE - his bank dropped their limitation defence)

 

 

 

Unfortunately he doesn't appear to have a dedicated thread to his claim, this was posted in someone elses thread.

 

and my discussion with the phoenix in his thread is here http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/hsbc-bank/6956-my-6-year-claim-6.html#post556791

 

thats great and is exactly what my claim is based on, my cause of action being when I first wrote to halifax and stated their charges were unfair and asked for them back, I am up to warrant of execution with them and still waiting.

'rise like lions after slumber, in unvanquishable number, shake your chains to the earth like dew, which in sleep had fall'n on you, ye are many, they are few.' Percy Byshse Shelly 1819

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I think these two are the same thing.

 

"An action founded on simple contract shall not be brought after the expiration of six years from the date on which the cause of action accrued." (Limitations Act 1980 s5)

 

If the cause of action was the placing of a charge by the bank then we have six years after the charge was made to bring an action (in court). So, today, the oldest charge I can claim for is one placed 6 years ago: the older ones are barred by the Act.

 

I agree

 

 

However, the Act also allows for the situation where the cause of action happened but you didn't know because the perpetrator hid it or you made a mistake in thinking they were allowed to do what they were doing (charging you) then the 6 years starts from the day you discover the truth (s32).

 

yes, that has been very well debated in many other threads, but this one was set up specifically to discuss the merits or otherwise of pursuing it from a completely new angle.

 

Being cynical, I'm not sure you can read too much into this.

 

The banks have been into court to fight claims purely on the limitation issue and won.

 

Why do you think this, based on the case that was presented?

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Are you saying that the limitation date runs from the first point of contact? Could this apply to your first complaint / prelim?

 

 

Using the ruling in this case you would have 6 years from the date of your first letter demanding the return of your money to bring it to court.

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Be wary,

 

All telephone calls are logged with the banks, and you should request a copy of this log in your SAR. After the 40 days to receive it, you are entitled to an update of any further information they hold on you, providing you are not requesting this at 'unreasonable' stages, so you should request a copy of all information monthly from their Data Controller (with any third parties, Data Processor).

 

They may produce their computer logs as evidence that you were aware of the damage, including date and name of user who logged the call. Therefore, make sure a request for all computer logs is in your SAR, as you will be able to show that they did not comply to your SAR request, and therefore your case could have been resolved without the need for Court action.

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The concept of a breach of contract on the part of the bank is appealing as long as there is a contract to breach. If the account from which one is claiming repayment of charges no longer exists, because it has been closed by either party, then surely there is no contract to breach.

 

I don't know the answer to this but my gut feeling is that if there was a contract in existence within 6 years of bringing the claim to court, then you would be ok. but I'm no expert and I'm only basing this on the fact that people with closed accounts are successfully bringing non-statute-barred claims. Would there be a difference with this approach? We really need the advice of zootscoot because contract law is her area of expertise.

 

There is a new approach here http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/general/66227-limitation-act-1980-s32.html which relies on a breach of duty rather than a breach of contract, which I find very appealing.

 

Elsinore

 

yes, but I think that depends on showing the bank owed us a duty to reveal the actual costs. again, this goes back to the s.32 line of attack, which I'm not saying we should ignore, just that this might provide the answer we have been searching for to get around that approach. lets hope we can get some expert opinion on all of this, soon...:)

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Be wary,

 

All telephone calls are logged with the banks, and you should request a copy of this log in your S.A.R - (Subject Access Request). After the 40 days to receive it, you are entitled to an update of any further information they hold on you, providing you are not requesting this at 'unreasonable' stages, so you should request a copy of all information monthly from their Data Controller (with any third parties, Data Processor).

 

They may produce their computer logs as evidence that you were aware of the damage, including date and name of user who logged the call. Therefore, make sure a request for all computer logs is in your SAR, as you will be able to show that they did not comply to your SAR request, and therefore your case could have been resolved without the need for Court action.

 

Sorry Tide, how do you mean the case could have been resolved without the need for court action?

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Bong,

 

Unsure, but I have read in the past that if an account is settled, then the contract is terminated and both parties have no recourse unless there is a specific clause (like a warranty), or other term which provides for an extended period.

 

This must be superceded by discovery though.

 

Tide

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Bong,

 

Unsure, but I have read in the past that if an account is settled, then the contract is terminated and both parties have no recourse unless there is a specific clause (like a warranty), or other term which provides for an extended period.

 

This must be superceded by discovery though.

 

Tide

 

If that was the case, then people with closed accounts wouldn't be bringing claims at all.

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