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    • Good points, TJ. I still think there are holes in the story.   OH [tennis fan] thinks Djokovic could have problems getting into the States for the US open if he doesn't get vaxxed.
    • There is little point asking questions if, when given a direction such as that by FTMDave above, you decide that instead of reading a thread from post #39, you read from #63 and think that it will give you answers.   This Forum is self help, so it is incumbent on you to do just that .
    • “The following has now been clarified as a category for which you may be eligible for a temporary medical exemption: Recent PCR-confirmed SARS-CoV-2 infection (after 31 July 2021) where a vaccination can be deferred until six months after the infection,” TA said in a letter to players and their teams.   The same document also made it clear that any applications for a medical exemption needed to be sent “no later than Friday 10 December 2021” — six days before Djokovic tested positive — meaning a positive Covid test would have come too late for TA’s exemption guidelines. Djokovic missed exemption cut-off by six days   Let alone that he quite clearly seemed to juggle the actual date of knowledge of his alleged infection to allow him to masklessly mix with youngsters and others     Anyway all other issues aside, lets ask the first question first: He applied for his visa without  required exemptions at the time, and without any intention whatsoever of being vaccinatated (not that he had time) - why? and how did he think he was going to be allowed access?   Notes: * I don't know, but Its probably a simple tick box of 'do you meet requirements and can you supply evidence' on the original application * There was clearly some issues with this known as the Aus tennis association said they had confirmed a prior infection (within stated limits/requirements) could or did allow an exemption (technicality - also included statement that infection exemption meant vaccination could be deferred form 6 months - not refused)    
    • Indeed I thought the court case concentrated more on technicalities and possible flaws in the reasoning rather than whether Djokovic met the conditions. Maybe not a legal reason, but he doesn't seem to worry about keeping to the rules about self-isolating and seems to have been economical with the truth over travel in the two weeks before the tournament.   As you say, there are doubts about the test and someone has also asked what he planned to do in the event he didn't manage to test positive a couple of weeks before he travelled.
    • There is a confusion of terminology here. When it comes to documents granting tenancies they are either described as "tenancy agreements" or "leases". However, though the former is generally used to describe an instrument granting a tenancy for three years or less and the latter to describe an instrument made by deed granting a tenancy for more than three years, they are not "terms of art", that is words or phrases with set meanings. The word "lease", though perhaps primarily used to refer to a document. also refers to an interest in land so that "lease" and "tenancy" mean the same thing, that is a leasehold interest.   Any purported grant of a tenancy for a term exceeding three years is void as provided by section 52(1) of the Law of Property Act 1925:   All conveyances of land or of any interest therein are void for the purpose of conveying or creating a legal estate unless made by deed.   By way of clarification:   Section 205(1)(ii) says:   “Conveyance” includes a mortgage, charge, lease, assent, vesting declaration, vesting instrument, disclaimer, release and every other assurance of property or of an interest therein by any instrument, except a will   Section 52(2) says:   This section does not apply to [...] leases or tenancies or other assurances not required by law to be made in writing   That is clarified by section 54(2) which says:   Nothing in the foregoing provisions of this Part of this Act shall affect the creation by parol of leases taking effect in possession for a term not exceeding three years (whether or not the lessee is given power to extend the term) at the best rent which can be reasonably obtained without taking a fine   (For your information I post as Lawcruncher on LLZ)  
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GGGGrrrrrrrrr, I'm not happy!


My husband and I are both taking on cahoot. His claim is a few weeks ahead of mine, and he has received a 50% offer from them this morning.


I filed my N1 form a few weeks ago, paid my £50 and felt happy about it all. Then yesterday I had a letter from the court saying that I had confused matters regarding who I was claiming against. Cahoot (as you all know) are part of Abbey National. Their official registered office address is Abbey National House. So on my N1 form I wrote Cahoot, Abbey National House, etc. The woman at the court said that I could either claim against Cahoot or Abbey National not both. My N1 form was identical to my husbands, and his was accepted, no questions! When I tried to tell the woman at the court about my husbands claim she said she wasn't legally trained and I would have to get legal advice!


I did everything right as far as I know. I checked on here to clarify the correct address to issue the claim against.


Has this happened to anyone else?

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issue it via mcol as you only have a computer to talk to !!!!

CLICK HERE FOR A LOOK AT ALL OF MY FILES: http://s134.photobucket.com/albums/q82/bailiffchaser/

do not forget to click on my scale if i am giving you the right advice or advice is making sense click my scales otherwise others think i am not helping you.

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