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    • The incident was 03rd March 2024 - and that was the only letter that I have received from MET 15th April 2024 The charge I paid was at the Stansted Airport exit gate (No real relevance now - I thought this charge was for that!!).   Here is the content of email to them (Yes I know I said I was the driver !!!!) as said above -  I thought this charge was for that!! "Stansted Airport" Dear “To whom it may concern” My name is ??  PCN:  ?? Veh Reg: Date of Incident: 03rd March 2024 I have just received a parking charge final reminder letter, dated 10th April 2024 - for an overstay.  This is the first to my knowledge of any overstay. I am aware that I am out of the 28 days, I don’t mean to be rude, this feels like it is a scam My movements on this day in question are, I pulled into what looked like a service station on my way to pick my daughter and family up from Stansted airport. The reason for me pulling into this area was to use a toilet, so I found Starbucks, and when into there, after the above, I then purchased a coffee. After which I then continued with my journey to pick my daughter up. (however after I sent this email I remember that Starbucks was closed so I then I walked over to Macdonalds) There was no signs about parking or any tickets machines to explains about the parking rules. Once at Stansted, I entered and then paid on exit.  So Im not show where I overstayed my welcome.. With gratitude    
    • Just to enlarge on Dave's great rundown of your case under Penalty. In the oft quoted case often seen on PCNs,  viz PE v Beavis while to Judges said there was a case for claiming that £100 was a penalty, this was overruled in this case because PE had a legitimate interest in keeping the car park free for other motorists which outweighed the penalty. Here there is no legitimate interest since the premises were closed. Therefore the charge is a penalty and the case should be thrown out for that reason alone.   The Appeals dept need informing about what and what isn't a valid PCN. Dummies. You should also mention that you were unable to pay by Iphone as there was no internet connection and there was a long  queue to pay on a very busy day . There was no facility for us to pay from the time of our arrival only the time from when we paid at the machine so we felt that was a bit of a scam since we were not parked until we paid. On top of that we had two children to load and unload in the car which should be taken into account since Consideration periods and Grace periods are minimum time. If you weren't the driver and PoFA isn't compliant you are off scot free since only the driver is liable and they are saying it was you. 
    • Thank you dx. I consider myself well and truly told :) x Thank you dx. I consider myself well and truly told :) x
    • Doubt the uneconomic write off would be registered, unless you agreed to accept write off settlement of the claim. It is just cosmetic damage. All that has happened, is that the car has been looked at and they realised the repair costs are going to exceed the value of the car. If the car is perfectly driveable with no upcoming normal work required to pass next MOT, your current Insurers will continue Insurance and you can accept an amount from third party Insurers to go towards you repairing the scratched bodywork.    
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auction win...new bid after the hammer


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today i won a auction with easylive.com the hammer dropped @£7900 i got rang a hour or two after the the end to say the auctioneer missed a bid and if i want the item i have to pay £8500 plus commisions of course...shouldn't the hammer fall be the binding bid ?

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In simplistic terms I'd say the hammer means that person has the winning bid.

 

If there was a bid after yours, why haven't they sold the item to that person? Did they give you any other information?

 

HB

Illegitimi non carborundum

 

 

 

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yes but they are only the agents.....the hammer closed and they went on to the next item..i rung the auction house at 11.57 to arrange a collection date ..it wasn't mentioned then...they rang me to inform me of the extra bid at 14.10

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Their explanation doesn't stack up to me.

 

I can imagine a situation where the auctioneer had received a valid bid prior to the fall of the hammer that was higher than yours but had not noticed it. In error they thought yours was the highest bid but they immediately notice the other bid so sell the item to the actual highest bid. I know nothing about auction law but if that had happened I could see some fairness in what they did.

 

But if that had happened it makes no sense that they offer the item you anyway but at a higher price. Because why hasn't it gone to the highest bidder? 

 

I suppose the highest bidder might have been unable to pay but if that happens shouldn't they either have sold it the second highest bidder - ie you - or alternatively put it back into a new auction?

 

Sounds to me like they are trying to fleece you.

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according to what they have said ..the auctioneer missed the other bid and moved on ..the auction house is featonbys in north shields ...the auctioneer is the company director and it's at his discretion until an invoice is sent out apparently...sounds like a con to me

 

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So are they saying they made a mistake but now will let you have the item as long as you agree to match the higher bid?

 

Hmmm. Not sure about the law on that. I guess they have a duty to the seller to get the highest price. It's possible what they doing is legal - as long as there genuinely was a higher bid that they hadn't noticed. Needs someone with knowledge of auction law to advise.

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I would ask the auction house who were conducting the auction for a copy of the terms and conditions.

Especially relating to online bids and the time delay of when the hammer drops and the time of the accepted bid online.

 

I attend an auction near where I live and the auctioneer when getting an moment of silence of no further bids received he will allow 3 seconds before dropping the gavel meaning he will say eg £50 the room £55 online £60 the room. Then silence "any further bids - one two three" and drop the hammer.

 

From the point of the hammer dropping and a full 3 second delay (warning) the winner is the one with the successful bid.

 

However if there is a rush of people clicking online then it is the received confirmed final bid online that wins the item . There might be a rolling proxy bid and that bidder would get the item. So if the item is going up in £5 increments and the buyer has invested say £100 in advance then instead of clicking to bid on the rise in price of £5 increments then this bidder wins the bid up to the total of his investment of £100.

 

If the bidding goes up to more than the £100 then other bidders gets the item. 

 

I also bid for items online with a well known auction site and I place a bid on a price that I feel that the item is worth (this being a much higher amount than that displayed).

So without going back in to continue to bid and if the item comes in at less than that of the amount that I have invested online then in the final frenzy of bidders I have more of a chance to getting the item because my bidding is automatically accepted with each rising increment.

 

This system I feel is the same that the auction of the item that Bigboykarl would have been using. 

 

It is a complicated process and I hope that I have explained myself as clear as possible.

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It doesn't necessarily* sound "wrong" to me.

 

Imagine the auctioneer has made a legitimate error and has honestly missed a bid higher than your winning bid.  They have a duty of care to the seller to get the highest price, so the "missing" bid - not yours - is actually the winning bid.

 

However, the auctioneer does not know that if you were aware of this other bid that you would not have made a higher bid.  So they are giving you the opportunity to do so now.  If the price they are offering is more than you were willing to pay, then simply don't accept it.  You are then in the same position as before the auction.

 

You need to examine their T&Cs (I'd expect them to cover the scenario above) and/or find someone who knows contract law as it relates to auctions.

 

*But it doesn't necessarily sound "right" to me either!  If they don't sell it to you at your bid price, that would suggest to me the above has happened.  If they do re-offer it to you at your original bid price, it would seem a bit strange.

 

 

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It`s the time delay between the hammer dropping to the bidding frenzy online. This is sometimes up to 2 mins so when you are looking at the auction online and you see the hammer drop it could have dropped earlier or later subject to the speed of the connection and bandwidth including the server used. 

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Hi

 

I think it would help us if you looked closely at easyliveauction.com Terms & Condition:

https://www.easyliveauction.com/legal/terms-and-conditions/

 

Then let us know exactly from these T&Cs how the live auction was run by that company.

 

The reason I mention this is there is one in those T&Cs 'Timed Auction' where the auction runs and to prevent 'bid snipping' when the hammer drops at the time the bidding time is extended for a few minutes after it has dropped. (note this is only one example from there T&Cs it would depend on how the auction was run).

 

So was the auction a: Timed Auction, Live Bidding Console, Live Bid, Absentee Bids or Autobid?

 

Have a good read of 'The Bidding Process'

 

 

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