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    • Yeah that is what I think not going to look a gift horse in the mouth plus got other issues right now with the virus and my job 
    • Thank you dx and you advice is well received.    will remember about the 'quote' thing and it seems you already know a lot about this site.   RT    
    • Don't worry about the warranty. You will be covered under the Consumer Rights Act which requires that goods be of satisfactory quality and remain that way for a reasonable period of time. However, there may be a dispute as to whether the problem was caused by a defect in the glass or some outside force such as some object hitting it. You say that you have found other instances of the same thing happening. I suggest that you start gathering screenshots of those – and it would even be helpful if you could contact the people involved. Also, if you find people talking about this on the Internet then post the links here so we can have a look. If you can get sufficient evidence that this is something that is happening to people's vehicles – the same vehicle as yours not other manufacturers, then you have a good chance that you can persuade a judge that there was a defect. What is the cost of replacing the glass roof?
    • I am unsure if I have already written these points, but this thread is called general points , and unless the OP objects, here are some.   Firstly, there are two separate kinds of warning notice issued when a credit card or credit agreement is defaulted. One is for credit referencing the other is to enable the termination and enforcement of an agreement. These are completely separate entities, which may or may not apply to the same date.   The one sent to the debtor warning about the impending mention on the file, gives 28 days normally although it is an advisory notice and cannot be challenged, it does not have to be given for an entry to be made on the CRA.   The notice sent from the creditor giving notice to take action is however statutory, under section 87 of the Consumer Credit Act, it gives 14 days to pay.   A statute barr is a method of limiting the amount of time for the creditor to take an action in court. In contract law, this period is generally 6 years.   To be clear this is the maximum time allowed between, the cause of action(for simplicity the default). and the date of the action itself in court. Therefor if you PDL has had an action was brought in six years, the statute Barr no longer have any relevance.    If the case was lost it would be a debt under a judgement, not under a default, if it was won, there would be no default to record.   Again for clarity, you cannot use a default date on a credit file to sow a default notice date under the CCA 74, as said different things.   Regarding an overdraft. There is no requirement to comply to part 5 of the CCA on tacit overdrafts. This is because of a declaration made By the governor back in 1983, part 5 contains section 85.   As far as the start date for SB is concerned, section 6(not5)applies in that,  instead of a default notice the date on the first full demand to repayment is recorded and used as the cause of action, that is when the SB starts, again nothing to do wih the date on the CRA file.
    • just type please don't use quote  it makes finding replies so difficult.   they cant simply change the signs/free hours without council permission...and that has not been applied for nor granted.   sit on your hands await if/unless PAPLOC   don't forget the next stages as i'm sure you've read as you say. lots of scary letters from DCA's   remember a DCA is  NOT A BAILIFF on ANY debt ..no matter what it's type. and have  ZERO legal powers on ANY debt either   dx  
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battyman

Pension Credit

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Is there any advice anyone can offer on Pension credit.

 

My sisters situation is she has been advised to apply for pension credit and a little help with her mortgage.

The problem is she is a "mortgage prisoner" and cannot afford to sell her house, it needs a lot of repairs, and cannot get a cheaper deal.

 

She has been working until recently, she is age 69, but if she did receive pension credit it would not cover all of her mortgage, even with the amount she would receive from the Government.

Her son is helping her at the moment and will carry on doing so until she can eventually sell the house, then she plans to repay him the loan.

 

My question is

would they allow her to do this or would any money, lent to her by her son be counted as income.

If you are not able to advise could you tell me where I could find this out for her.

Thank you.

Edited by dx100uk
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moved to the benefits forum


please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

 

if everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's tomorrow

the biggest financial industry in the UK, the whole DCA industry would collapse overnight.

 

 

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We could do with some help from you.

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Borrowed money is not income, so it would not affect her Pension Credit. It would be best if she could show (bank statements or whatever) where the money came from just in case there is ever a compliance check on her claim, but she should not lose any PC because of this.


PLEASE HELP US TO KEEP THIS SITE RUNNING. EVERY POUND DONATED WILL HELP US TO KEEP HELPING OTHERS

 

 

The idea that all politicians lie is music to the ears of the most egregious liars.

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I checked out the Age UK link but it didnt have any information regarding help from a relative. Thank you therefore for your reply antone, will pass on this information to her.

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