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    • Tangliss, if you can't upload the letter, could you tell us what the heading is please? My understanding is it should say 'Letter before claim' or similar. HB
    • Do you think I should send the CCA request now then instead of waiting? I really can do without the stress. Any advice would be appreciated. Thank you for responding.
    • How was the "receiver" appointed and what is their role? Appointed by the lender under the terms of their security on the loan (sometimes referred to as "LPA Receiver")? Or are they acting for you in insolveny? What's the current role of the agent?
    • Wait for more replies, but that letter to me can be interpreted as a letter before action. Ignoring it can have consequences. The court to impose sanctions for failure in responding to a letter of claim.
    • I'm still pondering/ trying to find docs re the above issue. Moving on - same saga; different issue I'm trying to understand what I can do: The lender/ mortgagee-in-possession has a claim v me for alleged debt. But the debt has only been incurred due to them failing to sell property in >5y. I'm fighting them on this.   I've been trying to get an order for sale for 2y.  I got it legally added into my counterclaim - but that will only be dealt with at trial.  This is really frustrating. The otherside's lawyers made an application to adjourn trial for a few more months - allegedly wanting to try sort some kind of settlement with me and to use the stay to sell.  At the hearing I asked Judge to expedite the order for sale. I pointed out they need a court-imposed deadline or this adjournment is just another time wasting tactic (with interest still accruing) as they have no buyer.  But the judge said he could legally only deal with the order at trial. The otherside don't want to be forced to sell the property.. Disclosure has presented so many emails which prove they want to keep it. I raised some points with the judge including misconduct of the receiver. The judge suggested I may have a separate claim against the receiver?   On this point - earlier paid-for lawyers said my counterclaim should be directed at the lender for interference with the receiver and the lender should be held responsible for the receiver's actions/ inactions.   I don't clearly understand that, but their legal advice was something to do with the role a receiver has acting as an agent for a borrower which makes it hard for a borrower to make a claim against a receiver ???.  However the judge's comment has got me thinking.  He made it clear the current claim is lender v me - it's not receiver v me.  Yet it is the receiver who is appointed to sell the property. (The receiver is mentioned/ involved in my counterclaim only from the lender collusion/ interference perspective).  So would I be able to make a separate application for an order for sale against the receiver?  Disclosure shows receiver has constantly rejected offers. He gave a contract to one buyer 4y ago. But colluded with the lender's lawyer to withdraw the contract after 2w to instead give it to the ceo of the lender (his own ltd co) (using same lawyer).  Emails show it was their joint strategy for lender/ ceo to keep the property.  The receiver didn't put the ceo under any pressure to exchange quickly.  After 1 month they all colluded again to follow a very destructive path - to gut the property.  My account was apparently switched into a "different fund" to "enable them to do works" (probably something to do with the ceo as he switched his ltd co accountant to in-house).   Interestingly the receiver told lender not to incur significant works costs and to hold interest.  The costs were huge (added to my account) and interest was not held.   The receiver rejected a good offer put forward by me 1.5y ago.  And he rejected a high offer 1y ago - to the dismay of the agent.  Would reasons like this be good enough to make a separate application to the court against the receiver for an order for sale ??  Or due to the main proceedings and/or the weird relationship a borrower has with a receiver I cannot ?
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Need advice - £70k debt - should I quit DMP now?


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had response many a time on RM site they are useless take money and fail to obtain signatures, delivery by sack to many big companies so not seen by post van driver to get siggy- but also in all cases a letter back to me refering to my letter of xx xxx xxxx inst so they do get them.

:mad2::-x:jaw::sad:
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Yes you presume received.

Not your problem if Link don't provide the paperwork to Royal Mail for their systems.

We could do with some help from you.

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Have received a letter from IDEM Servicing regarding an MBNA credit card debt from 2005,

enclosing a copy of the original signed agreement with my signature and what looks like a fresh set of the terms and agreement with a footer dated the same month and year as the signed agreement.

 

The letter states, they have now fully complied with their obligations and the debt once again becomes enforceable.

 

Any advice on this?

I will scan it up in a new thread

but looks like it may mean I have to make a low offer of payment to avoid a CCJ unless I am missing something?

 

It seems I am getting back quite a few original signed agreement which is worrying me.

I expected from comments there that I was being cash cowed by these DCAs.

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lets see the return

they all have filing cabinets of fake paperwork.

start that thread

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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blown up nice and big so we can look at the fonts on the print. Sometimes people slip up by using a font ro printing technology that didnt exist back then to make their reconstituted documents. that will give them something to think about if the same doument uses 2 fonts

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  • 2 weeks later...

Capital One sent me back a copy of my original signed agreement (with signature) and what looks like reconstituted T&Cs. This is for a 2003 CC debt.

 

I have missed the last 3 stepchange payments now and today received a letter saying they have instructed Fredrickson International Ltd. to act on their behalf to arrange repayment (part of Lowells group)

 

Does this mean they have sold the debt on or just asking someone to act for them for the collections. Does this mean they are likely gearing up for a CCJ?

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acting for them at this stage, usual procedure from them. 2003 application form = no doubt was a foldover application with no terms and conditions present on inception, they would arrive later with a card, therefore possibly unenforceable>???

 

 

they no doubt later if the situation is the same = non payment then start default notices and termination then they would no doubt sale the account to some Debt purchaser (Lowells) for pennies in the pound read other capital one threads and get the idea of the way they work.

:mad2::-x:jaw::sad:
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start another thread

scan it up

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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what they sent you was small paper with top left hand side your name and address only?

 

It was a single piece of paper. A copy of the application form, with my salary and signature and their signature. a small box at the bottom with CCA 1974 points on the bottom section. I will start new threads for all soon.

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It was a single piece of paper. A copy of the application form, with my salary and signature and their signature. a small box at the bottom with CCA 1974 points on the bottom section. I will start new threads for all soon.

 

not compliant :) Not even as a reconstituted agreement.

Any advice i give is my own and is based solely on personal experience. If in any doubt about a situation , please contact a certified legal representative or debt counsellor..

 

 

If my advice helps you, click the star icon at the bottom of my post and feel free to say thanks

:D

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  • 3 months later...
I have a question, today I received a letter from Capital One stating that the DCA who were acting on behalf of Capital One returned the debt to Capital One and will now be managed by Capital One.

 

What does this mean, why would the DCA return the debt?

 

Many reasons...not financially viable to chase.....something wrong with the paperwork......or Crarp 1 requested its return.

 

 

Andy

We could do with some help from you.

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Does that mean that the DCA (IDEM) did not purchase the debt, perhaps acting on commission instead?

 

Cap One might then try selling it on instead to another DCA?

 

Not sure if Cap On do CCJs?

(although this pre 2007 debt looks unenforceable to me)

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Does that mean that the DCA (IDEM) did not purchase the debt, perhaps acting on commission instead? Correct Cap One might then try selling it on instead to another DCA? Possibly Not sure if Cap On do CCJs? Only through a DCA after assignment (although this pre 2007 debt looks unenforceable to me)

 

Andy

We could do with some help from you.

PLEASE HELP US TO KEEP THIS SITE RUNNING EVERY POUND DONATED WILL HELP US TO KEEP HELPING OTHER

 

Have we helped you ...?         Please Donate button to the Consumer Action Group - The National Consumer Service

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  • 3 months later...

Totally ignore. Discounts like that 99.99% of the time mean the debts unenforceable. Especially with robbers way.

Any advice i give is my own and is based solely on personal experience. If in any doubt about a situation , please contact a certified legal representative or debt counsellor..

 

 

If my advice helps you, click the star icon at the bottom of my post and feel free to say thanks

:D

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noway totally ignore

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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  • 3 months later...
IDEM have instructed Wescot to act on their behalf for one of my debts (MBNA). Not sure if this means they are selling it or not. Should I reissue a CCA Request to Wescot now?

 

Not if you have already sent IDEM one...Wescot do not buy debts...just chase.

We could do with some help from you.

PLEASE HELP US TO KEEP THIS SITE RUNNING EVERY POUND DONATED WILL HELP US TO KEEP HELPING OTHER

 

Have we helped you ...?         Please Donate button to the Consumer Action Group - The National Consumer Service

If you want advice on your Topic please PM me a link to your thread

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