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wife has an old credit card debt - Assigned debt and CCA


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My wife has an old credit card debt of around £5K.

It went into arrears and a DMP (CCCS then self-managed) several years ago.

 

 

The debt was sold on to a bank who have recently sold it on to a DCA.

The DCA can't provide a copy of the CCA

- I didn't expect them to be able to

- but still want the full balance.

 

 

They also can't provide any proof of the balance they claim by way of statements.

 

What are the implications of stopping all payment.

 

 

I know it used to be the case that a debt without a CCA could not be taken to court, but is it right that courts are now more lenient with the creditor if proof of payment history is available?

 

I don't want to name any names at this point, I'm just trying to establish the principles and current experience.

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theres no real changes at all.

as long as the card is prior to Apr 2007

 

 

IMHO NO CCA = NO PAY

 

 

remove the cash cow account from the DCA milking parlour

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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  • dx100uk changed the title to wife has an old credit card debt - Assigned debt and CCA
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