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    • Regarding a driver, that HAS paid for parking but input an incorrect Vehicle Registration Number.   This is an easy mistake to make, especially if a driver has access to more than one vehicle. First of all, upon receiving an NTK/PCN it is important to check that the Notice fully complies with PoFA 2012 Schedule 4 before deciding how to respond of course. The general advice is NOT to appeal to the Private Parking Company as, for example, you may identify yourself as driver and in certain circumstances that could harm your defence at a later stage. However, after following a recent thread on this subject, I have come to the conclusion that, in the case of inputting an incorrect Vehicle Registration Number, which is covered by “de minimis” it may actually HARM your defence at a later stage if you have not appealed to the PPC at the first appeal stage and explained that you DID pay for parking and CAN provide proof of parking, it was just that an incorrect VRN was input in error. Now, we all know that the BPA Code of Practice are guidelines from one bunch of charlatans for another bunch of charlatans to follow, but my thoughts are that there could be problems in court if a judge decides that a motorist has not followed these guidelines and has not made an appeal at the first appeal stage, therefore attempting to resolve the situation before it reaches court. From BPA Code of Practice: Section 17:  Keying Errors B) Major Keying Errors Examples of a major keying error could include: • Motorist entered their spouse’s car registration • Motorist entered something completely unrelated to their registration • Motorist made multiple keying errors (beyond one character being entered incorrectly) • Motorist has only entered a small part of their VRM, for example the first three digits In these instances we would expect that such errors are dealt with appropriately at the first appeal stage, especially if it can be proven that the motorist has paid for the parking event or that the motorist attempted to enter their VRM or were a legitimate user of the car park (eg a hospital patient or a patron of a restaurant). It is appreciated that in issuing a PCN in these instances, the operator will have incurred charges including but not limited to the DVLA fee and other processing costs therefore we believe that it is reasonable to seek to recover some of these costs by making a modest charge to the motorist of no more than £20 for a 14-day period from when the keying error was identified before reverting to the charge amount at the point of appeal. Now, we know that the "modest charge" is unenforceable in law, however, it would be up to the individual if they wanted to pay and make the problem go away or in fact if they wanted to contest the issue in court. If the motorist DOES appeal to the PPC explaining the error and the PPC rejects the appeal and the appeal fails, the motorist can use that in his favour at court.   Defence: "I entered the wrong VRN by mistake Judge, I explained this and I also submitted proof of payment for the relevant parking period in my appeal but the PPC wouldn't accept that"   If the motorist DOES NOT appeal to the PPC in the first instance the judge may well use that as a reason to dismiss the case in the claimant's favour because they may decide that they had the opportunity to resolve the matter at a much earlier stage in the proceedings. It is my humble opinion that a motorist, having paid and having proof of payment but entering the wrong VRN, should make an appeal at the first appeal stage in order to prevent problems at a later stage. In this instance, I think there is nothing to be gained by concealing the identity of the driver, especially if at a later stage, perhaps in court, it is said: “I (the driver) entered the wrong VRN.” Whether you agree or not, it is up to the individual to decide …. but worth thinking about. Any feedback, especially if you can prove to the contrary, gratefully received.
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    • deed?  you mean consent order you and her signed? concluding the case as long as you nor she break it's conditions signed upto? dx  
    • Well tbh that’s good news and something she can find out for herself.  She has no intention of peace.  I’m going to ask the thread stays open a little longer.   It seems she had not learned that I am just not the one!!!!  plus I have received new medical info from my vet today.   To remain within agreement, I need to generally ask for advice re:  If new medical information for the pup became apparent now - post agreement signing, that added proof a second genetic disease (tested for in those initial tests in the first case but relayed incorrectly to me then ), does it give me grounds for asking a court to unseal the deed so I can pursue this new info….. if she persists in being a pain ? If generally speaking, a first case was a cardiac issue that can be argued as both genetic and congenital until a genetic test is done and then a second absolute genetic only disease was then discovered, is that deemed a new case or grounds for unsealing? Make sense ?   This disease is only ever genetic!!!!   Rather more damning and indisputable proof of genetic disease breeding with no screening yk prevent.   The vet report showing this was uploaded in the original N1 pack.   Somehow rekeyed as normal when I was called with the results.   A vet visit today shows they were not normal and every symptom he has had reported in all reports uploaded from day one are related to the disease. 
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Business Mileage - Home to Work


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I wonder if anyone can help as I am not finding the correct information anywhere or getting confusing answers.

 

I have an employee that is claiming mileage to visit a clients offices.

As I understand it he can claim from the normal place of work to the client offices but not from home direct to the clients offices.

 

I have tried to look on HMRC but it doesnt really help.

The contract with the client says reasonable expenses are to be paid,

therefore mileage could be recovered,

however they too have raised the query on why they are paying from his home.

Any thoughts please?

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I believe you are correct. If the distance from home to the client is longer then they have a legitimate gripe.

 

Thank you. Would anyone have a link to any useful website that could confirm

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Hello there.

 

When I was involved with this last, the company said that if someone went from home to a client meeting, they would deduct the distance from home to the office from the outward journey, if you see what I mean.

 

I'm not clear from your first post about who isn't happy with this, could you tell us a little bit more please?

 

HB

Illegitimi non carborundum

 

 

 

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The journey from home to your normal place of business is a commute rather than business miles so not claimable. Playing hard rules until you're at your normal place of work to set out to a client it isn't a business journey. It's HMRC rules so it should be on their website.

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The client isnt happy and I agree, however the employee doesnt.

This is why employers end up playing hardball and insisting employees do their normal commute into work before going out to clients. The client didn't contract with your employee to travel from wherever they choose to live, they contracted with your company at your normal place of business.

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If the distance from home to the client is longer then from home to work the employee can claim the difference in mileage.

 

So if the commute to work is 10 miles and the commute to the client is 12 miles they can claim the 2 miles.

 

If they go to the normal place of work first and then to the client they can then claim from and to the place of work.

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Don't think HMRC tell you where your employee can claim from to that degree, that's probably a contractual matter. HMRC just set figures for allowances for travelling business miles. I imagine the employee was being paid from the time they left home? Or did you want them to come to work first, to start the clock running? What's the benefit in the argument? If the employee only works a set amount of hours in a day, isn't it beneficial to get them to drive straight to the client than coming to work first?

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HMRC rules can be applied no matter what the employment contract says.

 

If the employment contract stipulates payments below the HMRC levels or any difference to the HMRC approved mileage guidelines, then a claim can be made to HMRC directly for the difference via a tax return.

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Or did you want them to come to work first, to start the clock running? What's the benefit in the argument? If the employee only works a set amount of hours in a day, isn't it beneficial to get them to drive straight to the client than coming to work first?

In many cases it is beneficial but the distance of the commute to the 'normal place of business' cannot be claimed. It's because it causes such argument that employers do get to the point of insisting all business journeys start from the office.

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