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    • Regarding a driver, that HAS paid for parking but input an incorrect Vehicle Registration Number.   This is an easy mistake to make, especially if a driver has access to more than one vehicle. First of all, upon receiving an NTK/PCN it is important to check that the Notice fully complies with PoFA 2012 Schedule 4 before deciding how to respond of course. The general advice is NOT to appeal to the Private Parking Company as, for example, you may identify yourself as driver and in certain circumstances that could harm your defence at a later stage. However, after following a recent thread on this subject, I have come to the conclusion that, in the case of inputting an incorrect Vehicle Registration Number, which is covered by “de minimis” it may actually HARM your defence at a later stage if you have not appealed to the PPC at the first appeal stage and explained that you DID pay for parking and CAN provide proof of parking, it was just that an incorrect VRN was input in error. Now, we all know that the BPA Code of Practice are guidelines from one bunch of charlatans for another bunch of charlatans to follow, but my thoughts are that there could be problems in court if a judge decides that a motorist has not followed these guidelines and has not made an appeal at the first appeal stage, therefore attempting to resolve the situation before it reaches court. From BPA Code of Practice: Section 17:  Keying Errors B) Major Keying Errors Examples of a major keying error could include: • Motorist entered their spouse’s car registration • Motorist entered something completely unrelated to their registration • Motorist made multiple keying errors (beyond one character being entered incorrectly) • Motorist has only entered a small part of their VRM, for example the first three digits In these instances we would expect that such errors are dealt with appropriately at the first appeal stage, especially if it can be proven that the motorist has paid for the parking event or that the motorist attempted to enter their VRM or were a legitimate user of the car park (eg a hospital patient or a patron of a restaurant). It is appreciated that in issuing a PCN in these instances, the operator will have incurred charges including but not limited to the DVLA fee and other processing costs therefore we believe that it is reasonable to seek to recover some of these costs by making a modest charge to the motorist of no more than £20 for a 14-day period from when the keying error was identified before reverting to the charge amount at the point of appeal. Now, we know that the "modest charge" is unenforceable in law, however, it would be up to the individual if they wanted to pay and make the problem go away or in fact if they wanted to contest the issue in court. If the motorist DOES appeal to the PPC explaining the error and the PPC rejects the appeal and the appeal fails, the motorist can use that in his favour at court.   Defence: "I entered the wrong VRN by mistake Judge, I explained this and I also submitted proof of payment for the relevant parking period in my appeal but the PPC wouldn't accept that"   If the motorist DOES NOT appeal to the PPC in the first instance the judge may well use that as a reason to dismiss the case in the claimant's favour because they may decide that they had the opportunity to resolve the matter at a much earlier stage in the proceedings. It is my humble opinion that a motorist, having paid and having proof of payment but entering the wrong VRN, should make an appeal at the first appeal stage in order to prevent problems at a later stage. In this instance, I think there is nothing to be gained by concealing the identity of the driver, especially if at a later stage, perhaps in court, it is said: “I (the driver) entered the wrong VRN.” Whether you agree or not, it is up to the individual to decide …. but worth thinking about. Any feedback, especially if you can prove to the contrary, gratefully received.
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    • deed?  you mean consent order you and her signed? concluding the case as long as you nor she break it's conditions signed upto? dx  
    • Well tbh that’s good news and something she can find out for herself.  She has no intention of peace.  I’m going to ask the thread stays open a little longer.   It seems she had not learned that I am just not the one!!!!  plus I have received new medical info from my vet today.   To remain within agreement, I need to generally ask for advice re:  If new medical information for the pup became apparent now - post agreement signing, that added proof a second genetic disease (tested for in those initial tests in the first case but relayed incorrectly to me then ), does it give me grounds for asking a court to unseal the deed so I can pursue this new info….. if she persists in being a pain ? If generally speaking, a first case was a cardiac issue that can be argued as both genetic and congenital until a genetic test is done and then a second absolute genetic only disease was then discovered, is that deemed a new case or grounds for unsealing? Make sense ?   This disease is only ever genetic!!!!   Rather more damning and indisputable proof of genetic disease breeding with no screening yk prevent.   The vet report showing this was uploaded in the original N1 pack.   Somehow rekeyed as normal when I was called with the results.   A vet visit today shows they were not normal and every symptom he has had reported in all reports uploaded from day one are related to the disease. 
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    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

      Frankly I don't think that is any accident.

      One of the points that the judge made was that the customers contract with the broker specifically refers to the courier – and it is clear that the courier knows that they are acting for a third party. There is no need to name the third party. They just have to be recognisably part of a class of person – such as a sender or a recipient of the parcel.

      Please note that a recent case against UPS failed on exactly the same issue with the judge held that the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999 did not apply.

      We will be getting that transcript very soon. We will look at it and we will understand how the judge made such catastrophic mistakes. It was a very poor judgement.
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      This is good ethical practice.

      It would be very nice if the parcel delivery companies – including EVRi – practised this kind of thing as well.

       

      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
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An interesting scenario for some advise please:

 

Completed on a property end Jan 2016. At the bottom of the property is a garage which was within our boundary and part of the premises on the land registry search. The property was being sold as leasehold. When coming up to completion our solicitor told us that the garage was not being sold as part of the property as the seller had already promised it/sold it to the neighbour. The seller had done this without completing any of the required legal paperwork with the land registry.

 

At completion we were told that as a condition for the sale to complete, the whole property would be transferred to us and we would then have to sell the garage back to the seller for a token 1 pound.

Not overly happy with that but we really wanted the house and got a good price.

The garage itself is in poor repair, but it is the land it sits on that we want.

 

From what I understand, the leasehold has now been split into the garage and the property/garden.

As we didn't own the land with the property being leasehold, we bought the freehold so that we now own the land, including the garage.

 

Any ideas of our legal position now?

 

* Are we responsible for the upkeep of the garage?

* Do we charge ground rent?

* Can we give notice to cancel their lease and take back the land?

* Can we object to any improvement/change to the garage?

 

Many thanks to all

Edited by honeybee13
Paras.
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An odd one.

 

The answers though would surely be in the lease ?. I would of thought that a new lease between you as FH and the garage owner/tenant/leaseholder has/will need to be created and this will show the terms, etc.

 

New leases are created for new flats or old houses converted into flats, these show the current FH and LH and as the property is assigned to different Fh and LH over the years the leases stays the same.

 

I dont know the process of how a new leases is created Im afraid, its also worth noting that a lot of the legislation (mainly protecting LHs) doesnt apply to garages only to properties where people live.

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you say it is a leasehold and then finish off by saying it is freehold. The question is who owns the land the garage sits on? The garage may well be yours but as part of the overall lease if anything was put in writing. Was it written into the purchase contract that the vendor was keeping a leasehold contract on the garage. No contract then it is yours to do whatever your want but if the person who thinks they bought it has had use of it for a number of years then they may continue to do so under rights of access. If there is no covenant then you can ignore the vendor's wishes because they have no claim on anything any more, just the possibility that the person next door has some rights.

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other thing you can do is put a bloody great boundary fence on the botton of your land that allows someone to squeeze through on their own but no possibility of getting a car in and out. Any right of access/use will be limited to a person, not a vehicle.

You should have dealt with this at the time of purchase so you may have to speak to your conveyancer to get an explanation of the other parties rights, if they have any.

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Hi Ericsbrother,

 

Thanks for the reply, when we completed the sale the property was leasehold. The garage was transferred back to the vendor using the Land Registry form TP1. As we weren't overly happy at not getting the garage, it was the land it sits on that was more important, so we purchased the freehold for all the land including the area where the garage is. This was done after the sale had been completed and the freeholder took care of all the legal paperwork.

As the new freeholder, when the garage is transferred/sold to the neighbour do we have to be notified and can we object to the sale?

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you didnt buy the garage land by the looks of it as you sold that right via the TP1 unless there had been a sale to the neighbour and that interest was bought back before selling you the freehold of the entire plot.

Speak to your conveyancer and ask them what they got you to sign as you dont understand it.

It could be you own the freehold of a leased garage but you dont have a copy of the lease. Ask your vendor or check with the land registry. If there is no mention of a ground rent you may have to go to the leashold valuations tribunal and that will not yield you result you want.

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