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    • I have had a secondary thought.  I borrowed £s from a completely separate entity 6y ago. It was personal and unsecured. I was going to repay upon sale of the property. But then repo and I couldn't.  Eventually they applied and got a charging order on the property.  Their lawyers wrote that if I didn't repay they may apply for an order for sale.  I'm not in control of the sale.  The lender won't agree to an order for sale.  The judge won't expedite it/ extract from trial.  Someone here on cag may or may not suggest I can apply for an order v the receiver?  But could I alternatively ask this separate entity with a c.o to carry out their threat and actually make an application to court for an order for sale v the receiver instead?
    • You left the PCN number showing, but no worries, I've redacted it. Euro Car parks are very well known to us.  I've just skimmed through the titles of the latest 100 cases we have with them (I gave up after 100) and, despite all their bluster and threats, in not one have they taken the Cagger to court. You stayed there for 2 hours &:45 minutes.  I'm guessing the limit is 2 hours and 30 minutes, right?  
    • If the claimant fails to draft directions the court can order a Case Management Hearing to set them but normally in Fast Track claims the claimant sets the directions...Unlike small claims track which are always set the court.
    • Not Evris offer, the court offers mediation service.   All claims proceed to hearing if mediation fails /not happen.   Why do you not wish to attend in person to stand your claim ?     Absolutely you must comply with the courts directions or your claim risks being struck out. Preparation for a hearing should happen irrespective of mediation.   https://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/topic/460613-suing-a-parcel-delivery-company-when-you-dont-have-a-direct-contract-with-them-–-third-party-rights-copy-of-judgment-available/#comment-5255007   Andy  
    • LPA.  (I'm fighting insolvency due to all the stuff that he and lender have done).  He appointed estate agents - (changed several times). Disclosure shows he was originally appointed for a specific reason (3m after repo) : using his powers as acting for leaseholder to serve notice on freeholders (to grab fh).  There was interest from 3 potential buyers. He chose one whose offer depended on a positive result of the notice.  Disc also shows he'd taken counsel advice - which was 'he'd fail'.  He'd simultaneously asked to resign as his job (of serving notice) was done and he'd found a buyer.  Lender asked him to stay on to assign notice to the buyer.  Notice failed, buyer didn't buy.  So receiver stayed.  There was 1 buyer who wanted to proceed w/o fh but receiver/ lender wasted 1y trying to get rid of them!  Disc shows why. But I didn't know why at the time. In later months Lender voiced getting rid of receiver. Various reasons - including cost.  But there's a contradiction/ irony: as I've seen an email (of 4y ago) which shows the receiver telling lender not to incur significant costs and to minimize receiver costs.    Yet lender then asked him to serve another notice - again counsel advice indicated 'he'd fail'.  And he did fail.  But wasted 3y trying and incurred huge legal costs - lender trying to pass on to me. Lender interfered - said wanted to do works.  Receiver should have said no.  But disc. shows he agreed to step aside to let them do the works - on proviso lender would discuss potential costs first (they didn't), works wouldn't take long (took 15m), and lender would hold interest (they didn't) (this last point is crucial for me now - as I need to know if I can argue that all interest beyond this point shouldnt be allowed?)   I need to check receiver witness statement in litigation with freeholders to see exactly what he said about 'his position'. But I remember it being along the lines of - 'if the works increased the value of the property he didn't have a problem'.  Lender/ receiver real problems started at this point. The cost of works and 4y passage of time has meant there is no real increase in value. Lender (or receiver) didn't get any permissions (statutory or fh) (and didn't tell me) and just bulldozed the property to an empty shell.  The freeholders served notice on me as leaseholder for breach of covenants (strict no alterations).  The Lender stepped in (acting for me) to issue notice for relief of forfeiture - not the receiver.  That wasted 2y of litigation (3y if inc the works) and incurred huge costs (both sides).  Lender's aim was to do the works that every potential buyer balked at due to the lease restrictions.  Lender and receiver knew couldn't do works w/o fh permission. Lender did them anyway; receiver allowed.  Receiver remained appointed.  I'm arguing lender interfered in receiver duties.  Receiver should have just sold property 4-5y ago w/o allowing any works.  Almost 3y since works finished the property remains unsold (>5y from repo). The property looks brand new - but it was great before.  The lender spent a ton of money - hoping that would facilitate a quick sale.  But the money they spent and the years they have wasted has meant they had to increase sale price.  It's now completely overpriced.  And - of course - the same issues that put buyers off (before works) still exist.   The receiver has tried for 2y to assert the works increased value. But he is relying on agents estimates - which have proved highly speculative. (Usual trick of an agent to give a high value to get the business - and then tell seller to reduce when no-one buys.). And of course lender continues to accrue interest (despite 4y ago receiver saying pause interest). Lender tried to persuade receiver to use specific agent. Disc shows this agent was best friends with the lender's main investor in the property.  Before works this agent had valued it low.  After works this agent suggested a value 70% higher!  The lender persuaded receiver to sack one agent and instead use this agent.  No offers. (Price way too high).   Research has uncovered that this main investor has since died.  I guess his investment is part of probate? And his family want it back?    Disc shows the sacked agent had actually received a high offer 1y ago.  Receiver rejected it.  (thus I don't know if the buyer would have ever proceeded). He was relying on the high speculative valuation the agents had given him to pitch for the business. The agents were in a catch-22.  The receiver sacked them. Disc shows there has been 0 interest ever since (inc via new agent requested by lender). I don't think lender or receiver want all this to come out in public domain via a trial.  It will ruin their reputations. If I can't get an order for sale with lender - can I apply separately against receiver?
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Robinson Way chasing an unknown debt


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Hi all

 

I need a little advice on something that cropped up on my credit report awhile back. After noticing a default being registered from Hoist Portfolio Holding 2 Ltd for an alleged debt for £3,194.00 I entered a dispute with the credit reference agency to gather further information (Noodle.co.uk) I was told it was for a Santander account.

 

Firstly I have never had an account with that bank or any financial association in any form at any time. The claim is the account began in 2004 and defaulted in 2011. This is blatantly untrue as previously stated I have never had an account with this bank and certainly not during this stated time period. I did however have an account with the Abbey National Bank, but I'm sure I left that bank in 2000, and certainly never had a debt that I can ever recall. I know Santander took over Abbey National in 2004 (after doing a little research), however I had left the Abbey long before this happened.

 

I have since just received a letter from Robinson Way stating I owe this money and that it is for a Santander account. I deny I owe any money to Santander on the grounds I have never held any account with them and the nearest association I can reasonably find is from the Abbey National Bank which I left in 2000. Surely this debt doesn't exist, nor can I be harassed for a statue barred debt that is over 15 years old (if it even exists in the first place).

 

Is there any action I can take that will get this default removed from my report, and also any action I can take against Robinson Way for maliciously damaging my credit report?

 

Many thanks

 

Phil

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Any advice i give is my own and is based solely on personal experience. If in any doubt about a situation , please contact a certified legal representative or debt counsellor..

 

 

If my advice helps you, click the star icon at the bottom of my post and feel free to say thanks

:D

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Thanks for the reply, I'll certainly be asking them to prove it. Unfortunately as they have put a default on my credit report I can't ignore them as this is having a detrimental effect on my credit rating. I am furious that they are allowed to do this!

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If theres a default, contact the CRA's and put a notice of dispute against it. Theyll contact the dca for more info. But for now, until you have clarification, dont contact the DCA. Most of the time, they throw on on there out of spite, even though they are NOT allowed to do it. Especially if that default wasnt there before. Only the OC can put a default on your file. Not the new owner. If you have a historical copy, then you are on more solid ground as you can show it wasnt there previously and theyve added it. Indeed, if it was there, it would have been there since 2011.

 

If this is the case, then when you challenge the DCA, they will usually back right down, as there was no debt, theyve placed an incorrect marker and if the debt was there, then theyre chasing a SB debt anyway and putting an incorrect marker.

Any advice i give is my own and is based solely on personal experience. If in any doubt about a situation , please contact a certified legal representative or debt counsellor..

 

 

If my advice helps you, click the star icon at the bottom of my post and feel free to say thanks

:D

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I would suggest satans bank placed the default before selling it on.

 

 

go phone satans bank and find out

I suspect they put or you had? an overdraft

and it took all those years to 'fill it up'

by whatever annual charges the account had

then they defaulted it in 2011 and sold it on.

 

 

its now approaching 6yrs SB date

and robbersway wanna fleece you before it does.

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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moved house in the last 15 years?

It may well be that having found someone with a similar name to a debtor they are after

they have just made the assumption it is you and not applied due diligence.

 

 

Once you have chewed the dca a bit you may need to let Satan know that they have made a big mistake

and that you will be seeking rerstitution should they not correct things,

apologise and make good your losses on dealing with this matter.

 

 

If you think it may be you they were after then you will need to do a SAR to them but see what the DCA does first

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There certainly has never been a default placed against my report by Santander ever. I've never had any dealings with the bank or any of their financial products. I have moved house several times in the last 16 years, but as I have a fairly uncommon surname I'm not sure how I could be confused with a previous tenant at any of the houses I have ever rented.

 

Still not sure of the best plan of action here, but I will put a notice of correction on file with my credit reference agency and see what that turns up before I get in touch with the DCA

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Uncommon surname, that is a clue, there may be a couple of others around within say 30 miles of you, so you will all get phishing letters.

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