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    • I'm still pondering/ trying to find docs re the above issue. Moving on - same saga; different issue I'm trying to understand what I can do: The lender/ mortgagee-in-possession has a claim v me for alleged debt. But the debt has only been incurred due to them failing to sell property in >5y. I'm fighting them on this.   I've been trying to get an order for sale for 2y.  I got it legally added into my counterclaim - but that will only be dealt with at trial.  This is really frustrating. The otherside's lawyers made an application to adjourn trial for a few more months - allegedly wanting to try sort some kind of settlement with me and to use the stay to sell.  At the hearing I asked Judge to expedite the order for sale. I pointed out they need a court-imposed deadline or this adjournment is just another time wasting tactic (with interest still accruing) as they have no buyer.  But the judge said he could legally only deal with the order at trial. The otherside don't want to be forced to sell the property.. Disclosure has presented so many emails which prove they want to keep it. I raised some points with the judge including misconduct of the receiver. The judge suggested I may have a separate claim against the receiver?   On this point - earlier paid-for lawyers said my counterclaim should be directed at the lender for interference with the receiver and the lender should be held responsible for the receiver's actions/ inactions.   I don't clearly understand that, but their legal advice was something to do with the role a receiver has acting as an agent for a borrower which makes it hard for a borrower to make a claim against a receiver ???.  However the judge's comment has got me thinking.  He made it clear the current claim is lender v me - it's not receiver v me.  Yet it is the receiver who is appointed to sell the property. (The receiver is mentioned/ involved in my counterclaim only from the lender collusion/ interference perspective).  So would I be able to make a separate application for an order for sale against the receiver?  Disclosure shows receiver has constantly rejected offers. He gave a contract to one buyer 4y ago. But colluded with the lender's lawyer to withdraw the contract after 2w to instead give it to the ceo of the lender (his own ltd co) (using same lawyer).  Emails show it was their joint strategy for lender/ ceo to keep the property.  The receiver didn't put the ceo under any pressure to exchange quickly.  After 1 month they all colluded again to follow a very destructive path - to gut the property.  My account was apparently switched into a "different fund" to "enable them to do works" (probably something to do with the ceo as he switched his ltd co accountant to in-house).   Interestingly the receiver told lender not to incur significant works costs and to hold interest.  The costs were huge (added to my account) and interest was not held.   The receiver rejected a good offer put forward by me 1.5y ago.  And he rejected a high offer 1y ago - to the dismay of the agent.  Would reasons like this be good enough to make a separate application to the court against the receiver for an order for sale ??  Or due to the main proceedings and/or the weird relationship a borrower has with a receiver I cannot ?
    • so a new powerless B2B debt DCA set up less than a month ago with a 99% success rate... operating on a NWNF basis , but charging £30 to set up your use of them. that's gonna last 5mins.... = SPAMMERS AND SCAMMERS. a DCA is NOT a BAILIFF and have  ZERO legal powers on ANY debt - no matter WHAT its type. dx      
    • Migrants are caught in China's manufacturing battles with the West, as Beijing tries to save its economy.View the full article
    • You could send an SAR to DCbl on the pretext that you are going for a breach of your GDPR . They should then send the purported letter of discontinuance which may show why it ended up in Gloucester and see if you can get your  costs back on the day. It obviously won't be much but  at least perhaps a small recompense for your wasted day. Not exactly wasted since you had a great win  albeit much sweeter if you had beat them in Court. But a win is a win so well done. We will miss you as it has been almost two years since you first started out on this mission. { I would n't be surprised if the wrong Court was down to DCBL}. I see you said "till the next time" but I am guessing you will be avoiding private patrolled car parks for a while.🙂
    • It is extremely disappointing that you haven't told us anything about the result of the hearing. You came here at the very last minute and the regulars - all unpaid volunteers - sweated blood trying to get an acceptable Witness Statement prepared in an extremely short time. The least you could have done is tell us how the hearing went, information invaluable for future users. Evidently not.
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Car sold at auction for a profit, where do I stand?


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Hi Folks,

 

Long story short but I missed 3 payments on my car (I lost my job) the agreement with the finance company was terminated and they wanted the balance in full (I couldn't afford to pay it in full).

 

The car was repossessed (I agreed to this and met them to take it away).

 

The car went to auction and sold for more than £10k than what the outstanding debt/balance was.

 

How do i stand with this?

 

The company are saying that they are entitled to keep all the money even though they have been overpaid by over £10k on the figures they sent me via their solicitor and the court letters before the car went to auction.

 

To add they didn't even tell me what auction it was going too and I've never had any more mail saying how much it sold for (this was 5 weeks ago).

 

Any help would be great.

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Can you give us some dates ie when bought how many payments was agreed and how many payments you made ?

 

 

Finance companies are not allowed to make a profit from repossession. If the car sold for less, you would still be liable to make up the shortfall,

You are liable for any missed payments however.

 

 

What documentation do you have, or can you get, for your claim of profit ?

 

 

What type of finance was it, HP or Car Loan ?

Edited by Conniff
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Thanks for the reply.

 

The car was a £73k car and £63k was financed.

 

The balance due at the time of repossession was £45k plus some fees.

 

The car sold at Auction for £61k.

 

They didn't tell me which auction it was going too not have they ever sent me anything since it sold, I only know as I found out where it was and attended the auction myself to see what it made.

 

They are at least £10k in profit to what I was due them.

 

I have spoke to their solicitor and his answer was that because the company ended the finance agreement and sold the car that they are entitled to the extra money.

 

New to all this but £10k+ is quite a bit of money.

 

The car was bought when I was in a good job and self employed, that is no longer the case and the £10k would make a huge difference to me these days.

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Ah, PCP is different. With a PCP you are only paying the depreciation and that is what the finance is worked out at, not the true value of the car. If the car is in negative equity at the end of the term, the finance company take the hit not the customer, so without actually seeing any regulation on it, my guess is that as the car belongs to the finance company, the reverse would also be true.

 

 

It is regulated under the Consumer Credit Act 1974 and the Financial Services Regulations 2004 so that would be worth a read.

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I think that limit was removed in 2006

 

If you are referring to the old £25k limit then this was indeed removed in 2011 as part of the Consumer Credit Directive, and replaced with a limit of £60,260 (which was at the time the sterling equivalent of the standardised European limit of 75,000 Euros.

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I suppose the argument was that you never owned the car at the time it was repossessed.

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