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Not my main current account,

I gave the debit card details to a company for a timed repayment (you may guess the type of company)

I had no arranged overdraft, was in credit.


The third-party company clearly repeatedly tried to take payments from the account but there were insufficient funds to do so.


Then suddenly for some reason the bank decided to allow a debit for the repayment of a couple of hundred pounds, making the account overdrawn.


This was a couple of years ago, and



since then the bank had applied a default marker and has increased the debt via


unauthorised overdraft etc to over £1200,

I.e. loads more than the original amount.


I have been ignoring all the letters etc, they don't seem that eager (YET)


But really:

why/how can they have allowed the debit card payment when there was no money,

I agreed no overdraft?



Are they allowed to do that?



And clearly that amount of charges is absurd.


Surely it should have rejected the debit request leaving the third-party to pursue me if necessary?


Thoughts? Ta

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time for a BCOBS complaint?



so this is as a result of PDL

or one of these loan finder companies fees?

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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Yes pdl


As you can see I was around on the forum at the start of the first wave of the bank charges battle but I'm rather out of touch now.


I see from your link that we have more consumer powahhhhhh now.


I seem to recall I received a 'final response' letter but my computer has exploded since then so I don't know if I have my correspondence.


Does anyone know if they can decide to accept a debit card debit if there is no money and no agreed overdraft faculty? I'm pretty sure any direct debit would be refused (so they can make money) but as there are no charges for a declined card debit I guess they make their money by accepting it therefore inducing unwarranted overdraft fees etc...


Am I imagining that there was a Halifax case recently about overdraft charges and defaults? Edit: ahh lloyds. Seemingly if the overdraft charges etc are deemed to be unfair a resulting default under the DPA is also unfair? Not sure how my case would compare as I did not make any payment as I considered their actions to be wrong and unfair and they had already started to add charges and I refused to give any money that would be used to pay those charges.


Any help very much appreciated

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