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Hi guys - just a quick question... I am currently on a form of sick pay, that was agreed (verbally - nothing in writing) with my company a couple of months ago - backed by notes from my GP. Basically, I have agreed to work from home and am being paid for the hours I work, rather than my normal salary.

 

My question is whether I am entitled to receive full pay (as in my salary) for bank holidays - my employer has already withheld payment for the bank holidays last month.

 

Thanks in advance!

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Hi guys, I spoke to a friend who has some legal knowledge and they advised that in this situation I have two options:

 

1) I can work something out with my employer - e.g. average my daily hours worked and ask to be paid in that amount for the public holidays.

 

2) Due to the fact that my current agreement is verbal, I could enforce being paid in full for the public holidays, but this may cause issue in the longer term.

 

Does this seem accurate?!

 

Thanks!

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Have a look at the sticky at http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/showthread.php?301068-Bank-Holidays-Do-I-Have-to-Work-(1-Viewing)-nbsp

 

This suggests that there is no automatic right to a day-off. If you are still employed but are being paid an hourly rate, I don't see why you would have an automatic right to be paid for bank holidays. Though if you always got paid for bank holidays in the past you could argue that your verbal contract includes a term that you will be paid for bank holidays based on custom & practice.

 

You'd still have a right to paid annual leave, though. If the day-off on bank holidays is treated as part of your paid annual leave then you should be paid for it.

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