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Question about Statute Barring


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Hi all,

 

Really simple question (hopefully).

 

I understand that a debt becomes statute barred 6 years after the date of the last missed due payment.

 

If a DMC issues court proceedings one month prior to this six year limit does that mean if this goes to court then even though by that time the six years has passed, the court will see it as being within the time limit or is it the case that the court will see that as a result of the case taking over a month to get to court (by the time you've filed a defence etc) it is now over 6 years and hence statute barred?

 

I have tried looking online and can't seem to find this distinction.

 

Thanks for any response :-)

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Hi

If any company files a court claim, even if it is 1 day short of the SB date, this stops the clock.

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As per silverfox's post.. :)

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