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    • Yep, I read that and thought about trying to find out what the consideration and grace period is at Riverside but not sure I can. I know they say "You must tell us the specific consideration/grace period at a site if our compliance team or our agents ask what it is"  but I doubt they would disclose it to the public, maybe I should have asked in my CPR 31.14 letter? Yes, I think I can get rid of 5 minutes. I am also going to include a point about BPA CoP: 13.2 The reference to a consideration period in 13.1 shall not apply where a parking event takes place. I think that is Deception .... They giveth with one hand and taketh away with the other!
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    • Regarding a driver, that HAS paid for parking but input an incorrect Vehicle Registration Number.   This is an easy mistake to make, especially if a driver has access to more than one vehicle. First of all, upon receiving an NTK/PCN it is important to check that the Notice fully complies with PoFA 2012 Schedule 4 before deciding how to respond of course. The general advice is NOT to appeal to the Private Parking Company as, for example, you may identify yourself as driver and in certain circumstances that could harm your defence at a later stage. However, after following a recent thread on this subject, I have come to the conclusion that, in the case of inputting an incorrect Vehicle Registration Number, which is covered by “de minimis” it may actually HARM your defence at a later stage if you have not appealed to the PPC at the first appeal stage and explained that you DID pay for parking and CAN provide proof of parking, it was just that an incorrect VRN was input in error. Now, we all know that the BPA Code of Practice are guidelines from one bunch of charlatans for another bunch of charlatans to follow, but my thoughts are that there could be problems in court if a judge decides that a motorist has not followed these guidelines and has not made an appeal at the first appeal stage, therefore attempting to resolve the situation before it reaches court. From BPA Code of Practice: Section 17:  Keying Errors B) Major Keying Errors Examples of a major keying error could include: • Motorist entered their spouse’s car registration • Motorist entered something completely unrelated to their registration • Motorist made multiple keying errors (beyond one character being entered incorrectly) • Motorist has only entered a small part of their VRM, for example the first three digits In these instances we would expect that such errors are dealt with appropriately at the first appeal stage, especially if it can be proven that the motorist has paid for the parking event or that the motorist attempted to enter their VRM or were a legitimate user of the car park (eg a hospital patient or a patron of a restaurant). It is appreciated that in issuing a PCN in these instances, the operator will have incurred charges including but not limited to the DVLA fee and other processing costs therefore we believe that it is reasonable to seek to recover some of these costs by making a modest charge to the motorist of no more than £20 for a 14-day period from when the keying error was identified before reverting to the charge amount at the point of appeal. Now, we know that the "modest charge" is unenforceable in law, however, it would be up to the individual if they wanted to pay and make the problem go away or in fact if they wanted to contest the issue in court. If the motorist DOES appeal to the PPC explaining the error and the PPC rejects the appeal and the appeal fails, the motorist can use that in his favour at court.   Defence: "I entered the wrong VRN by mistake Judge, I explained this and I also submitted proof of payment for the relevant parking period in my appeal but the PPC wouldn't accept that"   If the motorist DOES NOT appeal to the PPC in the first instance the judge may well use that as a reason to dismiss the case in the claimant's favour because they may decide that they had the opportunity to resolve the matter at a much earlier stage in the proceedings. It is my humble opinion that a motorist, having paid and having proof of payment but entering the wrong VRN, should make an appeal at the first appeal stage in order to prevent problems at a later stage. In this instance, I think there is nothing to be gained by concealing the identity of the driver, especially if at a later stage, perhaps in court, it is said: “I (the driver) entered the wrong VRN.” Whether you agree or not, it is up to the individual to decide …. but worth thinking about. Any feedback, especially if you can prove to the contrary, gratefully received.
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Everything Everywhere - Default


warebear86
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I am hoping someone can help me, or at least tell me that I am right.

 

Back Story

I obtained my credit report from Equifax on Monday, and it shows that I have a default for EE from July 2009.

 

I have paid this balance in full and continued to use the mobile contract up to present day. Now I have an outstanding balance accumulated in January for a massive bill, and I am on a Arrangement with Orange to pay this off.

 

Now, on the report it shows as Defaulted in 2009, not satisfied, and no payment history from the default up to present day.

 

Contact

 

So I decided to fire off an email to Orange Credit Team a copy of which is below:

---------------------------------------------

Good Afternoon.

 

Please can you copy (email address) into any replies as I will not have access to this email address as of 1st March 2013.

 

Name: xxxxxx

Mobile Number: xxxxxxx

Address: xxxxxx

Credit Ref: XXXXxxxx

 

I am writing in reference to a default that was applied to my credit report on July 2009.

 

Firstly, I never received a default notice regarding this account. So you can imagine my surprise in seeing this today when I obtained my credit report from Equifax.

 

If this default is indeed genuine, then it is still stated as defaulted on your report entry, although the balance was settle in August 2009 and I have continued to use the contract up to present day.

 

Also on the report it shows no payment history going up to present day. As this is the only item on my report, I am using this to build my credit profile.

 

Please can you advise why this is still showing as defaulted and not settled?

 

(Attached screenshot of Equifax)

 

Thanks,

xxxxxxxxx

 

------------------------------

 

Ok, then I got a response within 24 Hours, not even copied the other address as requested;

 

-----------------------------------

 

Our Ref: xx/xxxxxx/xxxxxxx

 

Dear Mr xxxx

 

Thank you for your recent email.

 

£xxx.00 is still outstanding. Could you please pay this amount as soon as possible?

 

You can make a payment by calling us on 07973 100178. As soon as you’ve paid, we’ll update your credit record.

 

----------------------------

 

This tells me absolutly nothing regarding my original questions, so I sent this reply

 

--------------------------------

 

Your Ref: xx/xxxxxx/xxxxxxx

 

Dear Mr xxxxx,

 

Thank you for your quick response.

 

I indeed know there is an outstanding balance for £xxx on this account, but this was accumulated from December 2012.

 

I currently have an arrangement of pay for this balance that was set up on 22/01/2013.

 

Please could you advise why the default is attached to the account from 2009 as my original query stated?

 

Also my second question regarding the payment history from 2009 to 2013 not showing on the credit report.

 

I await your reply,

 

xxxxxxxx

 

---------------------------------------------------

 

This is the reply today

 

--------------------------------------

 

Thank you for the response.

The default showing on your credit file relates to arrears on your account which were left unpaid for over 6 months. We can see that you have since cleared the arrears and as a result your subscription was reconnected to this account. As the same account was used this has meant that credit file information has not updated since reconnection.

Hence the payment history from 2009 to 2013 is not showing. We would be happy to update your credit file once the outstanding balance is cleared in full.

Thanks again for contacting us.

Regards

------------------------------------

My reply today

 

 

------------------------------

 

 

Our Ref: xx/xxxxxxxx/xxxxxx

 

 

Dear Mr xxxxx,

 

 

 

Thank you for your quick reply again. I am still failing to see the relevance of this outstanding balance.

 

 

 

Please can you advise what the credit report will show once the payment is paid. Also, can you advise what would have happened if this query was raised in November of 2012 before this new debt was accumulated?

 

 

 

Surely after the account was settled in 2009 then the default would also show settled. Also I really do not understand how I can have no payment history on my account from 2009, and also the arrangement to pay is not showing that was set up in January of this year.

 

 

 

This record is severely damaging my credit rating and I am attempting my best to get this rebuilt. But it appears all the work I have done from 2009 up to present has not counted as anything as it is not showing on Equifax.

 

 

 

I look forward to your reply, and also please can you reply to all on the next reply so that my personal email address gets a copy. I will be unable to use this mailbox from 1st March as stipulated in the original request.

 

 

 

Regards,

 

xxxxxxx

------------------------------------------

 

 

 

 

 

Now am I wrong, or should this info be on my credit report. Also, is there any threats I can include to get this updated straight away?

 

 

 

You help is appreciated,

 

 

 

Steve

 

 

 

 

 

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Emm, basically they are right a default did occur but was remedied outside the period allowed to clear it so a default has been recorded, the company has then '' reconnected the service which you are still using, this could be much worse if the company reports the original arrears as a seperate account with a satisfied default

with a lilfe of 6 years from 2009, and then reports an arrangement to pay ( this ihas much the same effect on credit rating as a Default) from 2012 which would have a ''life'' of 6 years from December 2012.

 

You say that this is the only account on your credit file? If there no other accounts live on your credit files lenders will not have sufficient data to make any credit decisions, a mobile phone account which is NOT a credit agreement but a service contract is not the ideal type of account to ''build'' a credit history.

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Thanks for the reply.

 

I have an active current account with a small overdraft that is 100% up to date. Virgin Media and Orange.

 

The only thing I cannot grasp is that there is no history after 2009. If I did not have this arrangement to pay and quried this last year for instance, would the account history just stop at the default?

 

Also, why would the default not be settled as I paid the arrears off in full in August 2009?

 

I just feel like I am not getting the reasoning behind the historical payments made from August 2009 upto present day.

 

Sorry to be a pain.

 

Steve

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The account was reopend without change as EE stated, if the account had been closed and the arrears paid the default would have been marked satisfied and wuld remain as such for 6 years.

I have to say it is unusual for an account to be reinstated in this way, as said it could have been one defaulted/ settled entry for 2009 and one arrangement to pay entry from 2012 which would remain until 2018 on credit files.

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Thanks again, I think I am getting this now. It just confused me because it was an ongoing account.

 

If I leave this as is, and pay the o/s balance off, would this just drop off my file in July 2015? Cause I take it this would be in my best interest also.

 

Thanks,

Steve

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paying it or not

the account wil still vanish on the defaults 6th birthday.

 

that isofcourse only IF the account summary has a defaulted date

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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There is a default date of 10/07/2009.

 

So how will this look on 10/07/2015? If this default drops off and it shows no up-to-date since July 2009 until December 2012 which it was always paid in full by direct debit. The original debt that refers to the default was already cleared in August 2009.

 

This new debt will be cleared next week as per arrangement with Orange.

 

Will this account just drop off my report and I will have a contract that isn't on my credit report?

 

Thanks,

Steve

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The whole entry is removed, once gone cannot return.

The original default must show on files until the full 6 years is up paid or not, and then the entries are removed paid or not.

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Please Consider making a donation to keep this site running!

Nemo Mortalium Omnibus Horis Sapit: Animo et Fide:

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My two mobile phone contracts only showed for three months then disappeared.

TV rental contract showed 1 month then disappeared.

Any Letters I Draft are N0T approved by CAG and no personal liability is accepted.

Please Consider making a donation to keep this site running!

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