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Did they get a liability order? if they did then it will stay in force and the debt will not become statute barred, a council has 6 years to apply for one normally and most Councils do get a liability order well before this time (The rules are different in scotland)

 

I do believe they did not get a liability order, however if they said they did, would it not be reasonable to expect a copy of that..

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Did they get a liability order? if they did then it will stay in force and the debt will not become statute barred, a council has 6 years to apply for one normally and most Councils do get a liability order well before this time (The rules are different in scotland)

 

See OP previous thread on council tax http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/showthread.php?380161-Legal-obligation-to-supply-information

Please use the quote system, So everyone will know what your referring too, thank you ...

 

 

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http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/showthread.php?380161-Legal-obligation-to-supply-information&p=4150888&viewfull=1#post4150888

A simple question, and you refer to a previous post. Have I missed something..

 

Yes.

 

If you had posted in one thread, stopped hijacking other people's threads and posting your CT Jackanory stories !

 

You may have got the advice you needed in the 1st place !

Edited by 45002

Please use the quote system, So everyone will know what your referring too, thank you ...

 

 

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http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/showthread.php?380161-Legal-obligation-to-supply-information&p=4150888&viewfull=1#post4150888

 

 

Yes.

 

If you had posted in one thread, stopped hijacking other people's threads and posting your CT Jackanory stories !

 

You may have got the advice you needed in the 1st place !

 

Sometimes I need to ask questions that have not been answered and from time to time it seems easier and quicker to ask a question about the same subject on an existing thread. I don't see that as hijacking, however I recognise your right to your opinion..

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consumer

your questions seem to have been answered on your thread(s).

it seems that there is no doubt that you were aware of their summons. and for whatever reason it wasn't addressed by you. and so an LO followed. or have i missed something?

you seem to be looking for an excuse that isn't there. you've been given info re poss set aside/quashing/substitution of an LO. have you pursued that? it seems not. why not?

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Two threads Merged.

 

Please can we stick to this one thread.

 

 

Thank you

 

seanamarts

 

Site Team

 

I agree that sometime we can all get hold of the wrong end of the stick. It appears to have happened on here. I could try and unravel certain perceptions but I'm not sure that others would admit there possible mistakes. Personal digs are never helpful..

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I agree that sometime we can all get hold of the wrong end of the stick. It appears to have happened on here. I could try and unravel certain perceptions but I'm not sure that others would admit there possible mistakes. Personal digs are never helpful..

 

Would you care to explain this further please as I was not aware that any personal digs were made

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There would I think be a court record, is action be ing taken on an order you have not been properly notified of?

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There would I think be a court record, is action be ing taken on an order you have not been properly notified of?

 

I had phoned the court to request a copy of the liability order, but was referred to LA who in turn confirmed to me that they didn't have one either. This is not to be confused with receiving a notice that a liability order had been issued which the LA had sent me..

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I had phoned the court to request a copy of the liability order, but was referred to LA who in turn confirmed to me that they didn't have one either. This is not to be confused with receiving a notice that a liability order had been issued which the LA had sent me..

 

The question is really, why won't anyone send me a copy of an exact liability order ?

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There is no physical piece of paper called an order, the clerk to the justices will note the decision of the court in the records, which I imagine will have an unique reference of some kind.

 

I don't know whether the court records are open to be view by the public or if you can request a copy of the entry under the DPA or FOI.

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consumer

if the 'issue' of an LO at the mags was 'illegal' (ie ultra vires) then no doubt it would've been challenged by now. but, you never know, you might set a precedent, if you decide to challenge it on that. but, technically, it seems you're pretty much out of time for doing so.

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I believe an amount of council tax from about ten years ago is statute barred, however the local authority has stated that this is not the case as notices were issued at the time. Given the fact that I have only there word for that, where do I stand on this issue. Many thanks..

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Council tax is not statute barred. Reading online there was a court of appeal case, which said that collection of council tax by way of a liability order was not limited to 6 years under section 9 of the limitations act. The rules regarding council tax collection come under local government finance legislation under which there is no time limitation.

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