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Defaulted account showing twice on Credit File


jpd070
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Hi all,

 

Having just paid off the last of my debt, I'm in the process of tidying up my Credit File.

 

I've looked at my Equifax report, and just noticed that a defaulted Barclaycard account is showing twice. It appears that when Barclaycard sold the debt to Lowell Group, the original entry was marked as a default and "satisfied" then Lowell have registered it again as a default (both the same date).

 

Can anybody advise the best way to proceed? I've raised a dispute via Equifax already but I'm not sure how long this will take for them to sort?

 

Any advice would be gratefully received.

 

Thanks

jpd070

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  • 3 weeks later...

why have you paid a fleecing DCA

 

all you've done is kept the file showing with a default until the default reaches

it's 6th birthday.

 

paid or not it would have gone anyway

 

 

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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I have posted this a couple of times before, there is a tendancy now to leave the OCs entry alongside the DCAs to show the ''true'' conduct of an account OCs marked settled DCAs showing default with the original default date.

This has no more impact than the original entry, so nt a problem IMO.

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Do you know the reason why MBNA leave some (sold) entries on, while removing others ?

Is it just random ?

 

Random, but it does seem this is being ''trialed'' to show the ''true conduct'' of an account to my mind it makes no odds as long as the default date remains the same.

Any Letters I Draft are N0T approved by CAG and no personal liability is accepted.

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Sorry, just to clarify, they are now showing the same debt as "settled" with the OC and as a "Default" with the DCA?

 

Out of curiosity, in yuor experience is this the case where the OC and the DCA are part of the same organisation eg Barclays / CDCS ?

Advice and comments posted by The Debt Star reflect only my personal opinion and it is up to you alone to decide what action you should take. You should always seek independent legal advice from your own qualified legal advisor.

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never seen any sale to an in-house DCA

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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I never said "sale."

 

The banks often have DCA divisions. I believe CDCS belomgs to Barclays, but may be wrong. I'm fine with that!

 

The question stands; if a creditor passes their account to a DCA they own, are these being reported separately as settled and as defaults as per post #1?

Advice and comments posted by The Debt Star reflect only my personal opinion and it is up to you alone to decide what action you should take. You should always seek independent legal advice from your own qualified legal advisor.

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not sure what you are getting at

 

an inhouse dca will not have their name agaibst a duplicate debt [to the OC] on a cra file.

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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An in-house DCA will not have their name against a duplicate debt (to the OC) on a CRA file.

 

That's what I needed to know. Thanks. Sorry if my question appeared obtuse.

Advice and comments posted by The Debt Star reflect only my personal opinion and it is up to you alone to decide what action you should take. You should always seek independent legal advice from your own qualified legal advisor.

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Hi all,

 

Having just paid off the last of my debt, I'm in the process of tidying up my Credit File.

 

I've looked at my Equifax report, and just noticed that a defaulted Barclaycard account is showing twice. It appears that when Barclaycard sold the debt to Lowell Group, the original entry was marked as a default and "satisfied" then Lowell have registered it again as a default (both the same date).

 

Can anybody advise the best way to proceed? I've raised a dispute via Equifax already but I'm not sure how long this will take for them to sort?

 

Any advice would be gratefully received.

 

Thanks

jpd070

 

Did the B/shark reporting stop on the date that Lowells started reporting, or have both been made up to the current date ?

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This is the new 'trend'' on reporting the conduct of an account, it has no adverse effect just reflects the conduct of the account.

Any Letters I Draft are N0T approved by CAG and no personal liability is accepted.

Please Consider making a donation to keep this site running!

Nemo Mortalium Omnibus Horis Sapit: Animo et Fide:

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