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    • Regarding a driver, that HAS paid for parking but input an incorrect Vehicle Registration Number.   This is an easy mistake to make, especially if a driver has access to more than one vehicle. First of all, upon receiving an NTK/PCN it is important to check that the Notice fully complies with PoFA 2012 Schedule 4 before deciding how to respond of course. The general advice is NOT to appeal to the Private Parking Company as, for example, you may identify yourself as driver and in certain circumstances that could harm your defence at a later stage. However, after following a recent thread on this subject, I have come to the conclusion that, in the case of inputting an incorrect Vehicle Registration Number, which is covered by “de minimis” it may actually HARM your defence at a later stage if you have not appealed to the PPC at the first appeal stage and explained that you DID pay for parking and CAN provide proof of parking, it was just that an incorrect VRN was input in error. Now, we all know that the BPA Code of Practice are guidelines from one bunch of charlatans for another bunch of charlatans to follow, but my thoughts are that there could be problems in court if a judge decides that a motorist has not followed these guidelines and has not made an appeal at the first appeal stage, therefore attempting to resolve the situation before it reaches court. From BPA Code of Practice: Section 17:  Keying Errors B) Major Keying Errors Examples of a major keying error could include: • Motorist entered their spouse’s car registration • Motorist entered something completely unrelated to their registration • Motorist made multiple keying errors (beyond one character being entered incorrectly) • Motorist has only entered a small part of their VRM, for example the first three digits In these instances we would expect that such errors are dealt with appropriately at the first appeal stage, especially if it can be proven that the motorist has paid for the parking event or that the motorist attempted to enter their VRM or were a legitimate user of the car park (eg a hospital patient or a patron of a restaurant). It is appreciated that in issuing a PCN in these instances, the operator will have incurred charges including but not limited to the DVLA fee and other processing costs therefore we believe that it is reasonable to seek to recover some of these costs by making a modest charge to the motorist of no more than £20 for a 14-day period from when the keying error was identified before reverting to the charge amount at the point of appeal. Now, we know that the "modest charge" is unenforceable in law, however, it would be up to the individual if they wanted to pay and make the problem go away or in fact if they wanted to contest the issue in court. If the motorist DOES appeal to the PPC explaining the error and the PPC rejects the appeal and the appeal fails, the motorist can use that in his favour at court.   Defence: "I entered the wrong VRN by mistake Judge, I explained this and I also submitted proof of payment for the relevant parking period in my appeal but the PPC wouldn't accept that"   If the motorist DOES NOT appeal to the PPC in the first instance the judge may well use that as a reason to dismiss the case in the claimant's favour because they may decide that they had the opportunity to resolve the matter at a much earlier stage in the proceedings. It is my humble opinion that a motorist, having paid and having proof of payment but entering the wrong VRN, should make an appeal at the first appeal stage in order to prevent problems at a later stage. In this instance, I think there is nothing to be gained by concealing the identity of the driver, especially if at a later stage, perhaps in court, it is said: “I (the driver) entered the wrong VRN.” Whether you agree or not, it is up to the individual to decide …. but worth thinking about. Any feedback, especially if you can prove to the contrary, gratefully received.
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    • deed?  you mean consent order you and her signed? concluding the case as long as you nor she break it's conditions signed upto? dx  
    • Well tbh that’s good news and something she can find out for herself.  She has no intention of peace.  I’m going to ask the thread stays open a little longer.   It seems she had not learned that I am just not the one!!!!  plus I have received new medical info from my vet today.   To remain within agreement, I need to generally ask for advice re:  If new medical information for the pup became apparent now - post agreement signing, that added proof a second genetic disease (tested for in those initial tests in the first case but relayed incorrectly to me then ), does it give me grounds for asking a court to unseal the deed so I can pursue this new info….. if she persists in being a pain ? If generally speaking, a first case was a cardiac issue that can be argued as both genetic and congenital until a genetic test is done and then a second absolute genetic only disease was then discovered, is that deemed a new case or grounds for unsealing? Make sense ?   This disease is only ever genetic!!!!   Rather more damning and indisputable proof of genetic disease breeding with no screening yk prevent.   The vet report showing this was uploaded in the original N1 pack.   Somehow rekeyed as normal when I was called with the results.   A vet visit today shows they were not normal and every symptom he has had reported in all reports uploaded from day one are related to the disease. 
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Death of spouse who owns house/mortgage


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My wife died just over a year ago.

 

The house we live in was bought in her name only, and the mortgage is in her name only.

 

I obtained Probate and I am the beneficiary of all assets and debts.

 

Last week I phoned up the lender - assuming it would simply be a case of switching the deeds and mortgage to my name and continuing payments.

 

I was concerned when the person said that in those situations they usually required the mortgage to be repaid

- which i couldn't do without selling the house - and I would have no-where to live.

 

Despite my late wife owning the house/mortgage, ALL monthly payments have been from MY account and have never been missed.

 

Anyone have any advice on this?

 

Thanks

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Unfortunately mortgages aren't transferable, so you will need to take out a mortgage in your own name in order to repay the mortgage in your deceased wife's name.

 

You have legitimately inherited the house, but there is an outstanding debt (the mortgage) which has to be repaid - as above, you can do that by getting a mortgage in your name if you meet a lender's borrowing criteria. I am afraid that having made the payments for however long won't be seen as relevant.

 

Are you in a position to obtain a mortgage? The first place to approach would be your own bank. Try to avoid sub-prime lenders if at all possible.

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This might be a stupid question, but have you checked all paperwork to ensure that your wife hadnt taken out a "reducing sum insurance" that would cover the outstanding balance of the mortgage in the event of her death ! It would be a relatively low value monthly premium.

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I am afraid I am unlikely to meet the criteria for obtaining a mortgage elsewhere...I am now retired and don't have a great credit profile. I cannot believe that a lender can evict me in such a situation in order to sell the house and repay the mortgage, whilst I can continue to pay it without any problem.

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If you have a policy for repayment of the mortgage, I would suggest that there is a clause in there relating to death of the beneficiary, so check that out first and then discuss the issue further with the mortgagee.

 

You may also want to check your position with the mortgage rescue scheme - as you are a pensioner they may be able to offer some assistance, and if nothing else, may be able to provide some guidance as to how to negotiate with the mortgagee.

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I believe Lea_HTH has given you the legal position, you should take her advice - she does know what she is talking about. Alternatively you could get an appointment with a solicitor who offers a free 1 hour consultation - lots of law firms do that.

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Sorry to hear about your situation and appreciate this must be a very stressful time.

 

Unfortunately as stated in the replies above the lender is completely within it's rights to take action to recover the outstanding mortgage. I've seen a handful of clients in exactly the same situation, obviously everyones situation is unique however it's been possible to find a sensible solution for them despite their age and credit status.

 

You should speak to a local reputable broker that will at least give you an overview of the potential solutions from a finance perspective. This doesn't mean to say securing finance is the only viable option however is at least an avenue you need to explore.

 

Hope this helps!!

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  • 2 years later...

Posted elsewher but was told to start new thread, so......our interest only mortgagelink3.gif with J P Morgan is due to expire early next year.

The repayment vehicle is that I have a house in France that will more than repay the mortgagelink3.gif.

(all payments up to date, never missed or been late with any).

 

My concern is what happens if the house in France has not sold by then (the property market there is pretty dead)?

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Do you currently have the house in France up for sale ?

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3: Feel Bullied by Creditors or Debt Collectors? Read Here

4: Staying Calm About Debt  Read Here

5: Forum rules - These have been updated - Please Read

BCOBS

1: How can BCOBS protect you from your Banks unfair treatment

2: Does your Bank play fair - You can force your Bank to play Fair with you

3: Banking Conduct of Business Regulations - The Hidden Rules

4: BCOBS and Unfair Treatment - Common Examples of Banks Behaving Badly

5: Fair Treatment for Credit Card Holders and Borrowers - COBS

Advice & opinions given by citizenb are personal, are not endorsed by Consumer Action Group or Bank Action Group, and are offered informally, without prejudice & without liability. Your decisions and actions are your own, and should you be in any doubt, you are advised to seek the opinion of a qualified professional.

PLEASE DO NOT ASK ME TO GIVE ADVICE BY PM - IF YOU PROVIDE A LINK TO YOUR THREAD THEN I WILL BE HAPPY TO OFFER ADVICE THERE:D

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uk house residential mortgage?

 

whats your uk loan to value as a percentage?

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Fully mortgaged - although I could raise 25% of the value from savings.

 

re-mortgage is simpy not feasible - I have talked to many about doing that, this is why I am asking what the mortgagor might do when the term expires.

 

The French property has much much more equity than is needed to repay the UK mortgage, but cannot be unlocked - French banks etc don't allow. UK companies don't touch French properties, especially now that I am retired.

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fca requirements, read before discussing with your lender

 

http://www.fca.org.uk/your-fca/documents/finalised-guidance/fg13-07

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  • 10 months later...

Property was in my late wife's name, mortgage with J P Morgan.

 

 

When she died they would not transfer mortgage to me as 'they were no longer lending'.

 

 

I continued to pay the monthly interest as Executor - never late or missed payment through whole term.

Mortgage is £68,000, value £70,000, funds held £28,000.

 

The mortgage term has now expired and they threaten possession if not repaid within one month.

 

I cannot get a remortgage at my age (68) and there IS a repayment vehicle in place

- a large house in France that I am selling

- but obviously not sold yet as the market there is depressed.

 

 

More than enough to repay.

 

Any advice?

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Hi

 

What is the approx value of your other property ?

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Value €600,000 with mortgage on it of €250,000 but not possible to release equity as the mortgage is with French Bank and they don' do that(!)

 

Ok sorry obviously you have looked into this. What about equitable assignment via a charge, or is this also not permitted ?

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DO NOT PAY UPFRONT FEES FOR COSTLY TELEPHONE CONSULTATIONS WITH SO CALLED "EXPERTS" THEY INVARIABLY ARE NOTHING OF THE SORT

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