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    • I'm still pondering/ trying to find docs re the above issue. Moving on - same saga; different issue I'm trying to understand what I can do: The lender/ mortgagee-in-possession has a claim v me for alleged debt. But the debt has only been incurred due to them failing to sell property in >5y. I'm fighting them on this.   I've been trying to get an order for sale for 2y.  I got it legally added into my counterclaim - but that will only be dealt with at trial.  This is really frustrating. The otherside's lawyers made an application to adjourn trial for a few more months - allegedly wanting to try sort some kind of settlement with me and to use the stay to sell.  At the hearing I asked Judge to expedite the order for sale. I pointed out they need a court-imposed deadline or this adjournment is just another time wasting tactic (with interest still accruing) as they have no buyer.  But the judge said he could legally only deal with the order at trial. The otherside don't want to be forced to sell the property.. Disclosure has presented so many emails which prove they want to keep it. I raised some points with the judge including misconduct of the receiver. The judge suggested I may have a separate claim against the receiver?   On this point - earlier paid-for lawyers said my counterclaim should be directed at the lender for interference with the receiver and the lender should be held responsible for the receiver's actions/ inactions.   I don't clearly understand that, but their legal advice was something to do with the role a receiver has acting as an agent for a borrower which makes it hard for a borrower to make a claim against a receiver ???.  However the judge's comment has got me thinking.  He made it clear the current claim is lender v me - it's not receiver v me.  Yet it is the receiver who is appointed to sell the property. (The receiver is mentioned/ involved in my counterclaim only from the lender collusion/ interference perspective).  So would I be able to make a separate application for an order for sale against the receiver?  Disclosure shows receiver has constantly rejected offers. He gave a contract to one buyer 4y ago. But colluded with the lender's lawyer to withdraw the contract after 2w to instead give it to the ceo of the lender (his own ltd co) (using same lawyer).  Emails show it was their joint strategy for lender/ ceo to keep the property.  The receiver didn't put the ceo under any pressure to exchange quickly.  After 1 month they all colluded again to follow a very destructive path - to gut the property.  My account was apparently switched into a "different fund" to "enable them to do works" (probably something to do with the ceo as he switched his ltd co accountant to in-house).   Interestingly the receiver told lender not to incur significant works costs and to hold interest.  The costs were huge (added to my account) and interest was not held.   The receiver rejected a good offer put forward by me 1.5y ago.  And he rejected a high offer 1y ago - to the dismay of the agent.  Would reasons like this be good enough to make a separate application to the court against the receiver for an order for sale ??  Or due to the main proceedings and/or the weird relationship a borrower has with a receiver I cannot ?
    • so a new powerless B2B debt DCA set up less than a month ago with a 99% success rate... operating on a NWNF basis , but charging £30 to set up your use of them. that's gonna last 5mins.... = SPAMMERS AND SCAMMERS. a DCA is NOT a BAILIFF and have  ZERO legal powers on ANY debt - no matter WHAT its type. dx      
    • Migrants are caught in China's manufacturing battles with the West, as Beijing tries to save its economy.View the full article
    • You could send an SAR to DCbl on the pretext that you are going for a breach of your GDPR . They should then send the purported letter of discontinuance which may show why it ended up in Gloucester and see if you can get your  costs back on the day. It obviously won't be much but  at least perhaps a small recompense for your wasted day. Not exactly wasted since you had a great win  albeit much sweeter if you had beat them in Court. But a win is a win so well done. We will miss you as it has been almost two years since you first started out on this mission. { I would n't be surprised if the wrong Court was down to DCBL}. I see you said "till the next time" but I am guessing you will be avoiding private patrolled car parks for a while.🙂
    • It is extremely disappointing that you haven't told us anything about the result of the hearing. You came here at the very last minute and the regulars - all unpaid volunteers - sweated blood trying to get an acceptable Witness Statement prepared in an extremely short time. The least you could have done is tell us how the hearing went, information invaluable for future users. Evidently not.
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      On 15/1/24 booked appointment with Big Motoring World (BMW) to view a mini on 17/1/24 at 8pm at their Enfield dealership.  

      Car was dirty and test drive was two circuits of roundabout on entry to the showroom.  Was p/x my car and rushed by sales exec and a manager into buying the mini and a 3yr warranty that night, sale all wrapped up by 10pm.  They strongly advised me taking warranty out on car that age (2017) and confirmed it was honoured at over 500 UK registered garages.

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    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

      Frankly I don't think that is any accident.

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      Please note that a recent case against UPS failed on exactly the same issue with the judge held that the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999 did not apply.

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      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
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Please see photo, how did this warrant a PCN?


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Contravention: Parked with one or more wheels on or over a footpath or any part of a road other than a carriageway"

 

Hi all,

 

Our company van is parked outside our unit everyday in its own space. Today I saw that we received a PCN yesterday (Sunday) morning. Why is this?

 

We are in our own parking space, I can only imagine that maybe it's the distance from the back wheels to the edge of the pavement??

 

I spoke with our neighbour, she said that she got one aswell! 2 minutes before I did! You can see her jeep in the photo, though she has moved it back since the ticket as she thinks the same as me, that we are too close to the pavement? We just don't know!

 

So is the traffic warden a) over-zealous b) stupid or c) correct?

 

2011-11-07 14 20 19.jpg

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I was parked when the dark-blue people carrier is (just to the right of the tree and bin)

 

I can't post a proper link because new posters aren't allowed to do so, but cut n paste the following : g.co/maps/zj95t

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You know what, you best ignore the Streetview I've just posted - photo must be well old! Today, it's a double yellow line, plus there are those 2-footlong yellow stripes perpendicular to the double yellow every few meters. I think I will take another photo tomorrow in the daylight.

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I wonder, are you sure that the area in front is actually for parking? If it's a shop front and not designated for parking specifically, then quite possibly it is part of the pavement/kerb. I suggest you need to check your shop documentation first, it could be that what has been customarily used by shops as parking space is nothing of the sort and a warden has stumbled onto that... you need to disregard that possibility first of all.

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There are low walls (with flowers planted) which, I have a hunch, are indicating a boundary bewteen the private area (where you could park) and the public footpath. See here:

 

road.jpg

 

If this is the case, then you would be deemed to be on the footpath if the wheels were between the red line I've drawn and the edge of the carriageway.

 

By counting the stones on the ground, I can tell that you would have been over the line.

 

The best way to find out if this is correct would be to contact the council (though not the parking department) and ask them if they can clarify if there is a designated footpath there, and if so, where the boundary is.

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http://g.co/maps/emf8f

 

There certainly doesn't seem to be any clear deliniation as to what is forecourt and what is pavement. However the brick flower bed to the right has a waiting/loading timeplate just in front of it and therefore the council is likely to argue that the area to the front of the flower bed is pavement.

 

You have nothing to lose by making an informal representation on the basis that as the whole forecourt is paved with the same materials it is impossible to tell where your forcourt ends and the pavement begins.

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I would agree with that. If there is a footway, the council will be able to tell you categorically, but even so, it's true that the demarcation is vague and this could be grounds for appeal on its own.

 

I think it would be the other way around unless it was clearly defined as private property it would be deemed a public right of way and therefore a part of the 'road' and the contravention correct.

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I was parked when the dark-blue people carrier is (just to the right of the tree and bin)

 

I can't post a proper link because new posters aren't allowed to do so, but cut n paste the following : g.co/maps/zj95t

 

 

gherk, if you want to post attachments, convert them into pdf format and then use the the instructions below to put them on your thread.

 

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goto one of the many free online pdf converter websites

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or ir you have PDF as an installed printer drive use that

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I think it would be the other way around unless it was clearly defined as private property it would be deemed a public right of way and therefore a part of the 'road' and the contravention correct.

 

It's a fair point, and I think you're correct - but I also think it could be argued the other way. The ground gives the initial impression (to me, anyway) that it is for the use of the premises rather than being a conventional pavement, so the lack of obvious boundary might suggest to a motorist that there is no pavement at all, and that the whole of the paved area is private and for vehicles. I think it could be argued, although, at the end of the day you are right of course.

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I agree with G&M, owning the area is not enough. Similarly providing and maintaining the actual surface also is not relevant. It must be clear it is not available for public access - either by signs or physical restrictions.

 

There appears to be folding yellow posts to prevent unauthorised parking outside some of the units.

That may add some weight to the 'private' area argument when being considered by an Adjudicator.

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I don't think it has to be specifically signs or physical restrictions. To take an example, if you are walking past houses with lawns at the front it's apparent that this is garden and not path, and therfore not public access. There dosen't need to be a sign or barrier necessarily.

 

If you look at the way the footpath lies by the junction, the path seems to terminate and meets a dropped-kerb made up of stones. It's how one would interpret this - is this a boundary or not?

 

I do agree with you both - I'm just making a case. I would sit before an adjudicator and argue it from this point of view, because I don't see it as clear cut.

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