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    • Regarding a driver, that HAS paid for parking but input an incorrect Vehicle Registration Number.   This is an easy mistake to make, especially if a driver has access to more than one vehicle. First of all, upon receiving an NTK/PCN it is important to check that the Notice fully complies with PoFA 2012 Schedule 4 before deciding how to respond of course. The general advice is NOT to appeal to the Private Parking Company as, for example, you may identify yourself as driver and in certain circumstances that could harm your defence at a later stage. However, after following a recent thread on this subject, I have come to the conclusion that, in the case of inputting an incorrect Vehicle Registration Number, which is covered by “de minimis” it may actually HARM your defence at a later stage if you have not appealed to the PPC at the first appeal stage and explained that you DID pay for parking and CAN provide proof of parking, it was just that an incorrect VRN was input in error. Now, we all know that the BPA Code of Practice are guidelines from one bunch of charlatans for another bunch of charlatans to follow, but my thoughts are that there could be problems in court if a judge decides that a motorist has not followed these guidelines and has not made an appeal at the first appeal stage, therefore attempting to resolve the situation before it reaches court. From BPA Code of Practice: Section 17:  Keying Errors B) Major Keying Errors Examples of a major keying error could include: • Motorist entered their spouse’s car registration • Motorist entered something completely unrelated to their registration • Motorist made multiple keying errors (beyond one character being entered incorrectly) • Motorist has only entered a small part of their VRM, for example the first three digits In these instances we would expect that such errors are dealt with appropriately at the first appeal stage, especially if it can be proven that the motorist has paid for the parking event or that the motorist attempted to enter their VRM or were a legitimate user of the car park (eg a hospital patient or a patron of a restaurant). It is appreciated that in issuing a PCN in these instances, the operator will have incurred charges including but not limited to the DVLA fee and other processing costs therefore we believe that it is reasonable to seek to recover some of these costs by making a modest charge to the motorist of no more than £20 for a 14-day period from when the keying error was identified before reverting to the charge amount at the point of appeal. Now, we know that the "modest charge" is unenforceable in law, however, it would be up to the individual if they wanted to pay and make the problem go away or in fact if they wanted to contest the issue in court. If the motorist DOES appeal to the PPC explaining the error and the PPC rejects the appeal and the appeal fails, the motorist can use that in his favour at court.   Defence: "I entered the wrong VRN by mistake Judge, I explained this and I also submitted proof of payment for the relevant parking period in my appeal but the PPC wouldn't accept that"   If the motorist DOES NOT appeal to the PPC in the first instance the judge may well use that as a reason to dismiss the case in the claimant's favour because they may decide that they had the opportunity to resolve the matter at a much earlier stage in the proceedings. It is my humble opinion that a motorist, having paid and having proof of payment but entering the wrong VRN, should make an appeal at the first appeal stage in order to prevent problems at a later stage. In this instance, I think there is nothing to be gained by concealing the identity of the driver, especially if at a later stage, perhaps in court, it is said: “I (the driver) entered the wrong VRN.” Whether you agree or not, it is up to the individual to decide …. but worth thinking about. Any feedback, especially if you can prove to the contrary, gratefully received.
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    • deed?  you mean consent order you and her signed? concluding the case as long as you nor she break it's conditions signed upto? dx  
    • Well tbh that’s good news and something she can find out for herself.  She has no intention of peace.  I’m going to ask the thread stays open a little longer.   It seems she had not learned that I am just not the one!!!!  plus I have received new medical info from my vet today.   To remain within agreement, I need to generally ask for advice re:  If new medical information for the pup became apparent now - post agreement signing, that added proof a second genetic disease (tested for in those initial tests in the first case but relayed incorrectly to me then ), does it give me grounds for asking a court to unseal the deed so I can pursue this new info….. if she persists in being a pain ? If generally speaking, a first case was a cardiac issue that can be argued as both genetic and congenital until a genetic test is done and then a second absolute genetic only disease was then discovered, is that deemed a new case or grounds for unsealing? Make sense ?   This disease is only ever genetic!!!!   Rather more damning and indisputable proof of genetic disease breeding with no screening yk prevent.   The vet report showing this was uploaded in the original N1 pack.   Somehow rekeyed as normal when I was called with the results.   A vet visit today shows they were not normal and every symptom he has had reported in all reports uploaded from day one are related to the disease. 
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      On 15/1/24 booked appointment with Big Motoring World (BMW) to view a mini on 17/1/24 at 8pm at their Enfield dealership.  

      Car was dirty and test drive was two circuits of roundabout on entry to the showroom.  Was p/x my car and rushed by sales exec and a manager into buying the mini and a 3yr warranty that night, sale all wrapped up by 10pm.  They strongly advised me taking warranty out on car that age (2017) and confirmed it was honoured at over 500 UK registered garages.

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    • We have finally managed to obtain the transcript of this case.

      The judge's reasoning is very useful and will certainly be helpful in any other cases relating to third-party rights where the customer has contracted with the courier company by using a broker.
      This is generally speaking the problem with using PackLink who are domiciled in Spain and very conveniently out of reach of the British justice system.

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      One of the points that the judge made was that the customers contract with the broker specifically refers to the courier – and it is clear that the courier knows that they are acting for a third party. There is no need to name the third party. They just have to be recognisably part of a class of person – such as a sender or a recipient of the parcel.

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      OT APPROVED, 365MC637, FAROOQ, EVRi, 12.07.23 (BRENT) - J v4.pdf
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Remedy for Breach of Contract


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Hi All,

 

I'm a newbie on the forum and would like to ask the following question...Which is correct in law to remedy a breach of contract?

 

 

To put the claimant in the position they were in before the contract was formed

 

or

 

To put the claimant in the position they would have been in had the contract been performed

 

 

Many thanks for any replies

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Hi Digga,

i think it all depends on whether you have accepted the breach or not. If the contract is still existing you could have two options.

Either rescind (to place the parties in their position pre contract) or affirm (accepting the contract as is but with liberty to seek damages).

Stocznia Gdynia v Gearbulk Holdings [2009] EWCA Civ 75 will offer you some further authority/information.

Please give more info if you can as your post is somewhat vague. Is it a business contract?

 

Ric

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Hi Ric, many thanks for your quick reply.

 

No it isn't a business contract and as the goods have not yet been sent to us, technically it isn't even a contract. I just want to get it right in my head which term is correct as I have read both terms on the internet and just want to get my facts correct before I start to argue my case with the company in question.

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Yes only a couple of hundred quid and the company has offered a small amount of compensation as well as my money back, my problem is that this compensation doesn't cover the cost of purchasing the item I should have received from elsewhere. Everyone has said I should accept the compensation as the company has offered to put me back into the position I was in prior to the contract taking place, hence my question...should I be put back to where I was or should I be put into the position I would have been had the contract been fulfilled?

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Supposedly, I purchased the item at the end of their "sale" and the following day the item was over double the price! However the same item on other sites (although more expensive) is nowhere near the new price.

 

I spoke to a legal helpline today associated with our insurance company, who told me that the company should only put me back into my original position and when I queried with them if this was correct as I had read otherwise on the internet, I was asked if I was a legal expert or had any legal knowledge as they had!

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IMHO you are entitled to some compensation at least for your time and having to source product elsewhere etc.

The amount would have to be reasonable but not necessarily the amount to cover the cost of purchasing elsewhere.

so it will be up to you to decide what you will accept or take it further.

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My understanding of contract law is that a court can order:

 

1) Specific performance - where the party is forced to complete their part of the contract

2) The award of damages to put you in the position you would have been in had the breach not occurred

 

The usual position in torts is that their should be no enrichment from the damages. They've made an offer to refund and compensate, which you are at liberty to refuse. Specific performance is usually used in real estate but is a possible action. I would consult a lawyer and get their opinion.

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This does not constitute legal advice and is not represented as a substitute for legal advice from an appropriately qualified person or firm.

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Some relevant points in consumer law trading regulations;

 

Do you have a receipt of purchase?

Did they give you a date for delivery ? (written)

Did they give you written notice of their cancellation?

Is the item covered by the distance selling regulations?

 

Any of these could be breach of contract and that could be subject to compensation.

Of course, all goods are bought in good faith but if the item is still available for sale

they should honour the contract and if it were me IMO that would be worthy of action.

 

You should talk to your local trading standards as they will be able to offer you an honest

opinion and give you a better idea of where you stand with regard to consumer law.

 

Ric

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Which is correct in law to remedy a breach of contract?

 

 

To put the claimant in the position they were in before the contract was formed

 

or

 

To put the claimant in the position they would have been in had the contract been performed

 

Both, depending on the circumstances. I appreciate that doesn't help much. If you have contracted for a thing at a certain price (and provided that the contract is valid) then if the seller doesn't supply the thing you can get it elsewhere. If this costs you more then you can recover your losses, i.e. the difference in the sale price.

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