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Hi all I don't know if this is posted in the right place so feel free to move.

 

Back in 2005 we were living in a seaside town in a building made up of mainly Bedsit type accommodation. We had the rear flat in the building that had it's own private entrance via a back door that lead out into the rear yard and we also had access to the flat via the shared hallway where all the buildings post used to go as this was the main front door.

 

We received a council tax bill whilst living there and we began to pay our council tax minus a discount we were receiving for housing benefit.

 

After a few months of paying this we received a cheque from the council in the post, no letter with the cheque to explain why. On ringing the council they told us we had received a council tax rebate as we were not liable for council tax on that flat.

 

We moved out of the flat in about April of 2006 and moved into a house owned by the same landlord who owned the Bedsit type building. A few months after being in the house we then received a council tax demand for the council tax due from the flat! We queried this with the council and they had told us that we had in fact been liable and they were billing us for the full year...around about 700 pounds that they wanted within 14 days.

 

We didn't have the money at the time as I hadn't returned to work after having our child so the council put us on a repayment plan that meant we struggled paying put council taxes as they wanted the equivalent of two years payments in one year.

 

I tried witting their cock up a number of times and asked why they had told us we were liable, then not, then demanded we pay it.

 

I know it's been a number of years since this happened, but I have recently spoken to someone who says we may have a claim against the council? I know shortly before we left the flat the whole building had a council inspection and I was wondering if they then changed the valuation on the building ie making the flat a seperate residence liable for council tax? I've been told that if this was the case we should have only been liable from the date this took place.

 

Does anybody know anything about this? I'm absolutely clueless about council taxes. Do I maybe have a case to get my monies back or were the council right on what they did? I wouldn't have been so bothered if we had just carried on paying the council tax as normal as the original council tax demand stated, but it did mess us up financially for a good while playing 'catchup' with the council and resulted in us receiving a fee for a liability order obtained in the following year when we struggled to pay two years money's thru no fault of out own.

 

Sorry it's so long winded thankyou for reading

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For the council to have billed you for the property it must already have been banded by the valuation office.

 

What I suspect has happened (and I've seen it happen quite a few times) is that it was taken out of your name as the council has information to suggest the owner should be liable for the council tax however it later came to light that it should after all be in your name. In this case the council do have to bill you as you are liable for the council tax.

 

The only people who can confirm what had happened is the council.

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