Default Help Please!

[Kalenn]

Hi,

 

I would be really grateful if someone could advise on an aspect of the process of a bank (RBS- Mint) applying a default to my credit file please.

 

I was made redundant in March 2009 and did not gain employment again until August 2009. I missed my monthly payments on my unsecured loan between May and August, when I entered into an agreement to repay again (including a little extra to pay off the arrears). I was, however, in constant contact with them throughout the entire time. I had never, in my life, made even a late payment to anyone before this time!

 

I ran my credit report on 7th December 2009 and the enties showed 5,5,5,5,4,3,2,1,0,0,0,0. I had, at this point, been paying them again since August (4 months payments). The report showed that it had been updated on 22nd November 2009.

 

However, I ran the report again on 28th December 2009 (which had a report date of 3rd january 2010) and it now listed the entry as an '8' which means that a default had been applied! It said that the default date was 13th November 2009, which was 4 months after I had been making repayments and was listed with a date that was earlier than the report date that I ran on the previous occasion! I have copies of both these reports.

 

I have never received any notice of a default being applied at any time. I do have 2 Notice of Sums in Arrears dated 16th November 2009 and 12th May 2010. As far as I am aware, these are only issued before a default has been applied. Am I correct in thinking this?

 

Anyway, sorry about the long post, but does anyone have any advice as to what I should do to tackle them about this, as I do not think the default should have been applied in the first place, please? At this time, I have been maintaining consistent payments again for 19 months, including the extra amounts to pay off the arrears.

 

Thanks so much in advance of your help.

Edited April 12, 2011 by Kalenn

[dx100uk]

as far as i can see

you missed 5 payments, and then have been 'late' making up the arrears

so this '8' would thus be correct

 

i suspect, this is the automactic CRA system, that we believe auto markers debts '8' after 6 markers.

 

see the FAQ on the CRA used.

 

dx

[Kalenn]

Hi,

 

Thanks for your reply. This was with Experian. They state that an 8 is applied if "You failed to keep to your credit agreement and have not responded satisfactorily to requests to bring your payments up to date, so the credit agreement has ended."

 

Due to the fact that:

 

1) The default was applied after I had entered into an agreed repayment plan with them

2) It was applied 4 months into the repayment plan (all payments made on time)

3) I have never received a default notice,

 

do I not have a case in fighting them to have it removed?

 

Experian states that the default means that "have not responded satisfactorily to requests to bring your payments up to date". I feel that agreeing and adhering to a repayment plan, is a satisfactory response. Is this not the case?

 

 

Thanks

[dx100uk]

a repayment plan is still not paying as under the original agreement, they can still mark your file.

 

dx