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Company demanding compensation of £250 for internal training!


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This is on behalf of a friend.

 

They have been dismissed on the spot due to an error which as far as I can see is caused by a lack of training.

 

He doesnt have 12 months service, so theres not a lot he can do about that of course.

 

He was only actually there, for 3 weeks - however, because they have sacked him, they told him he owes them £250 for the "time they spent training him" this is not external training, no qualification etc, this is the normal inhouse training one would get from other staff members/supervisors when starting a new job.

 

Are they able to do this?

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If they have a signed agreement to this effect, then yes, provided they can, if called upon, justify the expense. Otherwise, no.

 

Would it need to be a separate signed agreement, or can it be included in the written contract? Still waiting for more info on what if anything was signed.

 

But surely they cannot demand money for their own supervisors training new staff how to do their job?

 

From what I have been told, the mistake made due to lack of training could actually get the company in a lot of trouble, I wonder if he can negotiate if he did sign something.

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If he signed something and if they can quantify and justify the cost, then I am afraid that whether it was part of the written statement of contract or a separate document isn't really relevant. Whether or not they can justify it would depend on what a court decided - I'm afraid I would be fishing without a hook to second guess that. I would tend to think not if it was nothing but on the job training - but that is a guess. As to "negotiating" - well it sounds a bit more like "blackmail" the way you put it, and if you go down that route then it may work - or all hell could break loose. It'd be his gamble.

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If he signed something and if they can quantify and justify the cost, then I am afraid that whether it was part of the written statement of contract or a separate document isn't really relevant. Whether or not they can justify it would depend on what a court decided - I'm afraid I would be fishing without a hook to second guess that. I would tend to think not if it was nothing but on the job training - but that is a guess. As to "negotiating" - well it sounds a bit more like "blackmail" the way you put it, and if you go down that route then it may work - or all hell could break loose. It'd be his gamble.

 

The limited info I have at the moment is that it was normal on the job training, they have decided because they have sacked him after 3 weeks that he "owes" them for that on the job training, despite the mistake being made, being one due to a lack of that training.

 

I will post back when I have established if he signed anything, or if its in his terms of contracts. But it sounds like they are on a loser if it is normal on job training. :)

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