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Eu law overriding British law


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Having just read this article:

Add www at the front.

 

europeanlawmonitor.org/EU-Information/EU-Legal-Principles/EU-Law-Does-European-Law-Override-National-Law.html

 

Would I be right in saying if that is the case then surely The statute barred law of 6 years is really 3 years!

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Where is the quoted 3 year law Rhino ?

PLEASE NOTE - I am not a legal expert, what is stated is my own opinion and from what I have learnt from this forum and my own experiences.

 

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Hello Rebel,

 

Yes you are right. In their wisdom the British signatories signed up deliberately in my view to a treaty (hereinafter known as the Lisbon Treaty) which if memory serves correctly contains Appendix 26 which fundamentally says that specific areas of law in force in Poland and the United Kingdom would stand within those geographical areas of the EU. I think you can guess which ones our wonderful government exempted us from. Yes all the ones that increase the protection of the consumer or anything good for us mere citizenry. Its all couched in the usual gobbledegook in the hope that we cannot read and comprehend but sadly the intent is clear.

 

regards

the now very oilyrag going threadbare round the edges

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oilyrag I do believe you ( I'm struggling to find what you said ) but surely some area's have case law on their side where the consumer is involved.

 

 

unfairr contraacts

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Hi rhino,

 

I must admit I found the whole thing a nighmare to get any reason fom it, I should have made notes but relying on memory the devil in the detail lies within the "protocols" areas of this monstrous tome. I remember wading through all of misleading cross referencing gobbledegook and then quite suddenly coming across an almost clear statement in the appendices to protocols. I would have to go thorugh it all again but I am pretty sure t was appendix 26 but would stand corrected. What I am sure of is the statement that Poland and the UK were the two areas covered by these exemptions.

 

regards

oilyrag.

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