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    • Thank-you dx for your feedback. That is the reason I posted my opinion, because I am trying to learn more and this is one of the ways to learn, by posting my opinions and if I am incorrect then being advised of the reasons I am incorrect. I am not sure if you have educated me on the points in my post that would be incorrect. However, you are correct on one point, I shall refrain from posting on any other thread other than my own going forward and if you think my post here is unhelpful, misleading or in any other way inappropriate, then please do feel obliged to delete it but educate me on the reason why. To help my learning process, it would be helpful to know what I got wrong other than it goes against established advice considering the outcome of a recent court case that seemed to suggest it was dismissed due to an appeal not being made at the first stage. Thank-you.   EDIT:  Just to be clear, I am not intending to go against established advice by suggesting that appeals should ALWAYS be made, just my thoughts on the particular case of paying for parking and entering an incorrect VRN. And, I also continue to be grateful for any advice you give on my own particular case.  
    • you can have your humble opinion.... You are very new to all this private parking speculative invoice game you have very quickly taken it upon yourself to be all over this forum, now to the extent of moving away from your initial thread with your own issue that you knew little about handling to littering the forum and posting on numerous established and existing threads, where advice has already been given or a conclusion has already resulted, with your theories conclusions and observations which of course are very welcomed. BUT... in some instances, like this one...you dont quite match the advice that the forum and it's members have gathered over a very long consensual period given in a tried and trusted consistent mannered thoughtful approach. one could even call it forum hi-jacking and that is becoming somewhat worrying . dx
    • Yeah, sorry, that's what I meant .... I said DCBL because I was reading a few threads about them discontinuing claims and getting spanked in court! Meant  YOU  Highview !!!  🖕 The more I read this forum and the more I engage with it's incredible users, the more I learn and the more my knowledge expands. If my case gets to court, the Judge will dismiss it after I utter my first sentence, and you DCBL and Highview don't even know why .... OMG! .... So excited to get to court!
    • Yep, I read that and thought about trying to find out what the consideration and grace period is at Riverside but not sure I can. I know they say "You must tell us the specific consideration/grace period at a site if our compliance team or our agents ask what it is"  but I doubt they would disclose it to the public, maybe I should have asked in my CPR 31.14 letter? Yes, I think I can get rid of 5 minutes. I am also going to include a point about BPA CoP: 13.2 The reference to a consideration period in 13.1 shall not apply where a parking event takes place. I think that is Deception .... They giveth with one hand and taketh away with the other! One other point to note, the more I read, the more I study, the more proficient I feel I am becoming in this area. Make no mistake DBCL if you are reading this, when I win in court, if I have the grounds to make any claims against you, such as breach of GDPR, I shall be doing so.
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when is a default date set from


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Hi All recently I had a thought which puzzled me

 

I have read about default dates having gone round and round with DCA'S not being able to supply information I ask for and no acknowledment of debt .

I have noticed that debts sold to DCA'S APPEAR AS A NEW DEFAULT

I had a debt for 150.13p which has escalated to £800 after fees charges etc, I simply refused to pay it as it was all charges etc....no way it was a matter of principle...and they werent happy to argue my claim your charges back claim so I thought stuff you.!!!!!!...........sorry for the rant

 

This was defaulted with the original creditor over 5 years ago recently this debt has been bought by a DCA and a new default for hillsden has appeared on my file,is this even possible? i was just waiting for it to be statute barred as i felt we were at a stalemate (me and the original creditor) sorry if this sounds ridiculous

 

simple case in point IS THAT I have never had any credit agreement in place with hillsden how on earth can I default on it

 

can someone explain exactly when a default date is set by law

 

Thanks if someone could I have been trawling the net with no resultand simply dont understand when the original default date is my understanding was that it was the default date set by the original creditor this no longer appears and i think it was around 2003 but cannot find any trace of it the only thing which remains now are the defaults the DCA puts on my credit file every monthe for 23 months

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the only thing which remains now are the defaults the DCA puts on my credit file every monthe for 23 months
Complain to the credit reference agency & send the DCA this; http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/content.php?413-Letter-to-request-the-halt-on-the-processing-of-your-data

 

Once a debt has become Statute Barred nothing can unbar it & they certainly cannot process your data.

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so cerberusalert basically the default was registered by the original creditor before being sold on this means the DCA cannot enter one and shouldnt have??

 

thanks for the link but im not bright enough to understand it.the ICO guidlines that is

 

thanks for the reply also

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If six years have passed and the original default has dropped off Hillsden should not be updating it. As I said complain to the CRA... send that letter to Hillsden & if you don't get any sense from them complain to the ICO. Technically Hillsden will be libeling you & you could sue for damages.

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found it .

par.52

 

If the purchaser agrees to take control of the record, the customer should be informed that the debt has been sold or assigned and to whom. The credit reference agency file should be changed to show the name of the purchaser and that the rights to the debt have been sold or assigned. The purchaser should then make sure the record is kept up to date including changes to the amount still owed. The purchase should not affect how long the record is kept. It should be removed six years after the default.

PHOTOBUCKET TUTORIAL IS NOW DONE HERE IT IS

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  • 2 weeks later...

Thanks cerberus alert I have a question regarding the scotland thing as I am actually resident there .The original debt was taken out when I was living in yorkshire for my job i was a contractor and lived there in the week.

I went home to edinburgh at weekends .I now live in edinburgh again and have done so for about a year and a half im wondering if the six year thing is correct even though i live in scotland if that makes sense

 

also they seem to still be entering a default against a debt they were sold every month and it seems the old default which is on my file is now a new one from 2008 is this legal its the same amount but ill be damned if i need to contact them before april next year i have neither acknowledged or contacted them or the original creditor since our last exchange of words which is april 2005 but they still registered a default in 2008

 

help would be much appreciated

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