Jump to content

Is a mortgage invalid if derivatised like in the USA


style="text-align: center;">  

Thread Locked

because no one has posted on it for the last 4240 days.

If you need to add something to this thread then


Please click the "Report " link


at the bottom of one of the posts.


If you want to post a new story then


Start your own new thread

That way you will attract more attention to your story and get more visitors and more help 



Recommended Posts

Mortgage invalid if derivatised like in the USA.

Would this fall foul of the statute law in any way like:

being unable to show one owner,

or demonstrate title,

can a mortgage title be transferred without the other parties consent if not in default,

if the bank has changed ownership does the title change have to be registered on the charge documentation.


Any help on where to look for the relevant regs etc



Link to post
Share on other sites


  • Recently Browsing   0 Caggers

    • No registered users viewing this page.

  • Have we helped you ...?

  • Create New...