Jump to content
style="text-align:center;"> Please note that this topic has not had any new posts for the last 3630 days.

If you are trying to post a different story then you should start your own new thread. Posting on this thread is likely to mean that you won't get the help and advice that you need.

If you are trying to post information which is relevant to the story in this thread then please flag it up to the site team and they will allow you to post.

Thank you

Recommended Posts

My husband is going through bankruptcy over business debt. It has reached to the point where a trusty has been appointed. There is a flat is which is on joint names and has equity over 40,000.

We have owned this flat for last seven years but my husband never paid its mortgage. He was initially jobless then opened his business but could never made any profits. I have been working all this time, was paying mortgage and other bills.Through bank statement we can prove that

 

My question is because I have been paying mortgage all this time, Does that still means that he has 50% share? Am I not eligible for more than 50% share?

 

Kind Regards.

NMittra

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites

  • Recently Browsing   0 Caggers

    No registered users viewing this page.


  • Have we helped you ...?


×
×
  • Create New...