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My husband is going through bankruptcy over business debt. It has reached to the point where a trusty has been appointed. There is a flat is which is on joint names and has equity over 40,000.

We have owned this flat for last seven years but my husband never paid its mortgage. He was initially jobless then opened his business but could never made any profits. I have been working all this time, was paying mortgage and other bills.Through bank statement we can prove that


My question is because I have been paying mortgage all this time, Does that still means that he has 50% share? Am I not eligible for more than 50% share?


Kind Regards.


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