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    • Euro have got a lot wrong and have failed to comply with the Protection of Freedoms Act 2012 Schedule 4.  According to Section 13 after ECP have written to Arval they should then send a NTH to the Hirer  which they have done.This eliminates Arval from any further pursuit by ECP. When they wrote to your company they should have sent copies of everything that they asked Arval for. This is to prove that your company agree what happened on the day of the breach. If ECP then comply with the Act they are allowed to pursue the hirer. If they fail, to comply they cannot make the hirer pay. They can pursue until they are blue in the face but the Hirer is not lawfully required to pay them and if it went to Court ECP would lose. Your company could say who was driving but the only person that can be pursued is the Hirer, there does not appear to be an extension for a driver to be pursued. Even if there was, because ECP have failed miserably to comply with the Act  they still have no chance of winning in Court. Here are the relevant Hire sections from the Act below.
    • Thank-you FTMDave for your feedback. May I take this opportunity to say that after reading numerous threads to which you are a contributor, I have great admiration for you. You really do go above and beyond in your efforts to help other people. The time you put in to help, in particular with witness statements is incredible. I am also impressed by the way in which you will defer to others with more experience should there be a particular point that you are not 100% clear on and return with answers or advice that you have sought. I wish I had the ability to help others as you do. There is another forum expert that I must also thank for his time and patience answering my questions and allowing me to come to a “penny drops” moment on one particular issue. I believe he has helped me immensely to understand and to strengthen my own case. I shall not mention who it is here at the moment just in case he would rather I didn't but I greatly appreciate the time he took working through that issue with me. I spent 20+ years of working in an industry that rules and regulations had to be strictly adhered to, indeed, exams had to be taken in order that one had to become qualified in those rules and regulations in order to carry out the duties of the post. In a way, such things as PoFA 2012 are rules and regulations that are not completely alien to me. It has been very enjoyable for me to learn these regulations and the law surrounding them. I wish I had found this forum years ago. I admit that perhaps I had been too keen to express my opinions given that I am still in the learning process. After a suitable period in this industry I became Qualified to teach the rules and regulations and I always said to those I taught that there is no such thing as a stupid question. If opinions, theories and observations are put forward, discussion can take place and as long as the result is that the student is able to clearly see where they went wrong and got to that moment where the penny drops then that is a valuable learning experience. No matter how experienced one is, there is always something to learn and if I did not know the answer to a question, I would say, I don't know the answer to that question but I will go and find out what the answer is. In any posts I have made, I have stated, “unless I am wrong” or “as far as I can see” awaiting a response telling me what I got wrong, if it was wrong. If I am wrong I am only too happy to admit it and take it as a valuable learning experience. I take the point that perhaps I should not post on other peoples threads and I shall refrain from doing so going forward. 🤐 As alluded to, circumstances can change, FTMDave made the following point that it had been boasted that no Caggers, over two years, who had sent a PPC the wrong registration snotty letter, had even been taken to court, let alone lost a court hearing .... but now they have. I too used the word "seemed" because it is true, we haven't had all the details. After perusing this forum I believe certain advice changed here after the Beavis case, I could be wrong but that is what I seem to remember reading. Could it be that after winning the above case in question, a claimant could refer back to this case and claim that a defendant had not made use of the appeal process, therefore allowing the claimant to win? Again, in this instance only, I do not know what is to be gained by not making an appeal or concealing the identity of the driver, especially if it is later admitted that the defendant was the driver and was the one to input the incorrect VRN in error. So far no one has educated me as to the reason why. But, of course, when making an appeal, it should be worded carefully so that an error in the appeal process cannot be referred back to. I thought long and hard about whether or not to post here but I wanted to bring up this point for discussion. Yes, I admit I have limited knowledge, but does that mean I should have kept silent? After I posted that I moved away from this forum slightly to find other avenues to increase my knowledge. I bought a law book and am now following certain lawyers on Youtube in the hope of arming myself with enough ammunition to use in my own case. In one video titled “7 Reasons You Will LOSE Your Court Case (and how to avoid them)” by Black Belt Barrister I believe he makes my point by saying the following, and I quote: “If you ignore the complaint in the first instance and it does eventually end up in court then it's going to look bad that you didn't co-operate in the first place. The court is not going to look kindly on you simply ignoring the company and not, let's say, availing yourself of any kind of appeal opportunities, particularly if we are talking about parking charge notices and things like that.” This point makes me think that, it is not such a bizarre judgement in the end. Only in the case of having proof of payment and inputting an incorrect VRN .... could it be worthwhile making a carefully worded appeal in the first instance? .... If the appeal fails, depending on the reason, surely this could only help if it went to court? As always, any feedback gratefully received.
    • To which official body does one make a formal complaint about a LPA fixed charge receiver? Does one make a complaint first to the company employing the appointed individuals?    Or can one complain immediately to an official body, such as nara?    I've tried researching but there doesn't seem a very clear route on how to legally hold them to account for wrongful behaviour.  It seems frustratingly complicated because they are considered to be officers of the court and held in high esteem - and the borrower is deemed liable for their actions.  Yet what does the borrower do when disclosure shows clear evidence of wrong-doing? Does anyone have any pointers please?
    • Steam is still needed in many industries, but much of it is still made with fossil fuels.View the full article
    • Less than 1% of Japan's top companies are led by women despite years of efforts to address the issue.View the full article
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ccj back to 2004 and a charging order - enforceable?


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Hi all, ok i am first to admit that I have been extremely stupid with money in the past, however i am slowly getting to grips with my various creditors, unfortunately in some cases the debts with CCJs and a couple even have charging orders against my property where i live with my wife.

 

i have just received a letter from one of the DCAs i am dealing with.

it is the 10th letter i have received from them in the past 2 months, and states:

"within the next 14 days we will be writing to other secured creditors and requesting final figures to pay off the charges in their favour"....."we would also intruct a local estate agent to conduct a drive by valuation of your property to confirm its current market value".

 

Firstly, i know i should have fought the charging order, but can they have a charging order on the property without a CCA ? Should i ask them to supply it to confirm the debt is legally enforceable, or will they have it already?

 

Secondly, can they write to other creditors (ie: my mortgage company) to ask for that sort of detail from them ? and what about a "drive by valuation" surely that will tell them nothing as they dont know what the inside of the property is like, and anyone snooping around the property would be tresspassing ?

 

Any help gratefully received.

also, let me know if i am on the wrong forum thread....

 

thanks

 

streetgang

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Hi Streetgang,

 

Your first point is one which I have pondered myself and the conclusion from others on here is that it does not matter if there is no enforceable agreement under the CCA, basically it has gone to far. The opportunity to challenge the legality of the debt was lost when the Judge granted the charging order.

 

There are however some circumstances that you may possibly be able to get this overturned but your chances are very slim indeed, unless you can prove that at the times of hearings you were unable submit a proper defence and even it would be a long hall.

 

The original CCJ would have given you the instructions on what you need to pay and by when, so you may be able to get an order to vary the terms of the Judgement, this is a more likely scenario.

 

As for DCA now chasing I think what they are saying with regard to talking to other creditors is breaking Data Protection laws and some of what they are saying could be bluster to frighten you.

 

I think you need to start making payments in line with the judgements, and then look at how you can vary the terms to make it manageble for yourself.

 

BB

Please note: I am not a lawyer and as such any advice I give is purely from a laymans point of view;-)

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Thanks BB,

 

I just wish i hadnt buried my head in the sand. That said, i am trying to sort things now.

on my first point, i take it you are saying that to get the CCJ and Charging Order they must have presented to the court and judge a properly executed CCA ? and that it is therefore pointless to pursue further?

 

Interested in your views on Data Protection Laws, presumably they would need legal powers to gain this information from 3rd parties ? (do DCAs hold these powers without applying for them from a court? - i know the police do obviously, but would doubt DCAs do....)

Finally, I have set up a £50 standing order to the DCA, an amount they agreed, but they have said they will wish to see this increase in the next six months.

To be honest, the £50 is a stretch, but i wanted to show good faith in making payments. Can they force me to pay more if i can clearly show i couldnt afford to pay (much) more...?

 

many thanks for your advice.

Streetgang

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i take it you are saying that to get the CCJ and Charging Order they must have presented to the court and judge a properly executed CCA ?

 

Nope, it would have been down to you to challenge the enforceability of the agreement in a defnece hearing of the original judgment.

 

Was there a court order outlining the amount you should pay monthly?

has the creditor applied for an Interim Charge at this point?

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Hi Streetgang,

 

The creditor would have gained a judgement un-opposed so to speak through lack of your defence. So the POC could have said anything virtually and the judge would have granted it ----- because you did not contest it. So to answer your question it did not matter if it was an enforceable agreement under the CCA or not.

 

This part about the DPA I am not sure about maybe someone else could advise, but in my view I do not think that a DCA can gain Info in this way. It is your data and as such the DCA would have to ask your permission to use the data in this way !! IMHO.

 

If your payments are what the judge ordered then there is little the DCA can do without an order to vary the terms as I have previously posted. The law works both ways don't forget.

 

BB

Please note: I am not a lawyer and as such any advice I give is purely from a laymans point of view;-)

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Hi all, further to an earlier thread, i would be very grateful if anyone could answer the following....

 

I have a DCA threatening to seek financial details from other companies with interests in my property (namely my mortgage company and 1 other charging order). Note that this DCA has a charging order on property.

 

Are they legally entitled to ask and receive this information from 3rd parties?

i would have hoped not as this is financial information about my interests, and i wouldnt give consent for it to be shared.

Any advice or clarification is welcome.

thanks

Streetgang.

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Thank you, very helpful.

 

I am very grateful for the comment(s) you gave me yesterday regarding this request, but you will recall you said that others would be better placed to give advice on this issue, which is why I posted again.

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Thank you, very helpful.

 

I am very grateful for the comment(s) you gave me yesterday regarding this request, but you will recall you said that others would be better placed to give advice on this issue, which is why I posted again.

 

 

Yeh Hi streetgang,

 

I was trying to bring up your thread to others attention im sure you will get an answer soon.

 

BB

Please note: I am not a lawyer and as such any advice I give is purely from a laymans point of view;-)

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If they have the relevant level of membership of Experian's CAIS then yes they can.

 

It is very likely that they do have the required level of membership

 

When you applied for any credit product it would have said in the t&cs that you gave your permission to share information

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thanks Nicklea, i honestly cant remember if it did or not.

Should I ask the DCA to show they have relevant membership of Experian's CAIS and would the CCA have the stipulated information about giving permission to share the information?

Thanks for your help.

Streetgang

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All credit agreements (well there might be one or two that don't) allow the creditor to share data. This comes under the DPA rather than the CCA.

 

Asking the DCA if they are a member of CAIS won't help much. Either they are - in which case they will get the information. Or they aren't in which case they won't get the information.

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Hello Streetgang,

 

Do you have a copy of your credit agreement and the terms and conditions, if you do you will be able to see what you signed ;-)

If any of my posts are helpful, please feel free to click my scales. All information is given as my opinion only, based on my own personal experiences. I have no legal training, but have educated myself in aspects of consumer legislation. My motto "NEVER GIVE IN, NEVER SURRENDER", THERE IS A WAR ON YOU KNOW

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Hi Streetgang - yes, creditors can share information where there is a credit agreement under section 35 of the data protection act.

 

Basically, if a creditor has commenced, or looking to commence litigation, your other creditors must provide the requested info (arrears, balance, redemption amount etc...)

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  • 3 weeks later...

Thanks Deshaine, should i therefore ask the DCA to supply a copy of the credit agreement to validate that they can ask for this information lawfully?

Earlier comments i have had suggested that the company must have had a copy of the original credit agreement to get the charging order in the first place.

 

All help gratefully received.

Streetgang

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Yes Streetgang ask them for CCA. You may well have given your permission when and IF you signed the original agreement. However they will have to produce this to a) show you gave that permission and b) prove there is an enforceable agreement. If they haven't got one they cannot process your personal data or pursue you for the debt.

They may well have a got a CO without if you never defended and just got a ccj against you and a then a fast CO. If there is no CCA you will need to try and get the CCJ and then CO overturned. A hard job but not impossible.

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  • 2 years later...

Hi All, i had a credit card which i took out in 2000, due to my own stupidity i let my finances get completely out of control and the account was defaulted in july 2004. it was subsequently bought by a debt agency and they applied and got a charging order on my property.

 

i have really tried hard to get my credit score sorted out and everything is being paid back, or so i thought.

 

anyway, my question is, is this debt still enforceable?, the default was in 2004 and this is now off my credit file, it is however subject to a charging order so not sure if the 6 yr statute still stands ?

 

note i havent paid anything on the account since 6 yrs ago.

 

thanks for your advice.

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sadly yes. ccj's/co's dont expire

all they are doing is waiting for a sale i assume.

 

have you got all the paperwork?

and where you aware it was taking place at the time...just didn't defend it.

 

not sure on the co, if you can get it overturned, ccj's alone...yes.

once past 6yrs they have to go back to court to enforce it, but not sure on co...

if might just be they are awaiting your house safe [if ever] to get their pound of flesh.

 

have a read of a few threads here or use our search in the blue bar for charging order.

 

others will be along soon with a better knowledge.

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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Thanks D, yes unfortunately I just didnt defend it....stuck my head in the sand and hoped it would go away, which it didnt of course.

 

We are hoping to move house in the next yr or so so they may get their pound of flesh then.

 

Sounds like i need to start paying them back, albeit probably no more than £30 to £50 a month as i aready have a lot of outgoings.

 

Thanks again, much appreciated.

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have you got all the paperwork?

 

what was the ccj judgement?

 

i'm wondering if you might be able to challenge the whole thing as it was a DCA i bet they never had an agreement or anything.

esp if you never even ack'ed it in 6yrs, you might be able to.

 

not really my game

you'll have to wait for one of the knowledgeble ones to pick up the the thread later or monday,

sit tight for now dont do anything.

 

dx

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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Dear Forum, I have been doing some search on this site and the wider web for information on Charging Orders on a previously unsecured debt.

 

The original debt, from a credit card, was in my sole name.

The mortgage on my property is jointly owned by my wife and I,

The DCA got a CCJ on my property back in 2004,

The DCA then got a charging order on my property,

I didnt challenge the charging order at that time buried my head in the sand i am afraid :( ,

I have numerous old debts, the vast majority are being paid back with regular payments,

The debt in question above I completely forgot about and havent paid anything on since 2004,

I am happy to start a repayment plan dont want to acknowledge the debt unless i have to incase it is statue barred.

 

I think it probably cant be statue barred as it already has a CCJ and CO on it.

My question is, after looking at numerous sites an posts, it seems that the charging order can only be a restriction if the original debt was in a sole name and the mortgage is joint. All we need to do is ensure our solicitor lets the DCA know 14 days before the sale goes through ?

 

Does anyone know if this is true ?

 

We are thinking of selling our house and dont want the DCA get their money if it can be helped.

 

If they cant, ie: because the mortgage is joint, then i will start a repayment plan.

 

Many thanks for all your advice.

Streetgang

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Firstly, you need to ENSURE you use a solicitor who knows the law on charging orders.

 

All they have to do is give the creditor written notice of the impending sale 14 days before completion and the purchasers solicitor an undertaking that the CO will fall away on completion.

 

The creditor would have to move at the spped of light to start the cogs turning and apply to a court for thier share. This is very rare indeed.

 

So, sale goes through, you have the proceeds, DCA gets nothing and charging order drops away.......:D

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