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    • This is a long time issue and a little complicated so I'll attempt to condense.   Barclays account: held with them over 25yrs, opend in the 90's £6800 overdraft   15 years ago the account became a problem due to account holder due illness/company closing/long term disabilities.   No activity on the account other than what is stated below, card not used, balance always kept just under the o/d level so as not to incur further costs.   In those 15 yrs (2006)the account has been maintained each month by Barclays applying the o/d interest and the account holder paying that amount.  In the early years about £120 pm, then it went to £3per interest so worked out and around £90pm and late last year with the interest hike by the banks on O/d's it took the amount close to £180pcm    In  / around 2012 the account holder approached the bank with a view to receving some help, they were at that time somewhat ill, and registered as disabled. They asked that they convert the amount to a loan with them so that over time the balance would reduce. The Bank refused but instead put them through to another in-house lender, (woolwich) on internal line, they took the details but then didn't offer the loan.   Account holders health deteriorated but they insisted with their family members to continue to pay the overdraft, they were petrified of what may happen if they didn't.   In 2014 a SAR's was asked of Barclays which they sent but it didn't give much away, but importantly neither did it mention the customer going into the branch for the help.   In 2019 the customer via a third party who also obtained a third party mandate  approached the bank with a lengthy correspondence asking for help, they gave as much info as they could.   A month later then bank stated they believed they had not acted incorrectly as the account had been held to the good by the miniumum payments on the account being met, in short unless the account tripped they would not know there was a problem.   It was pointed out to the bank that under the terms of the original agreement and backed up by a letter from the bank way back as early as 2003 that the overdraft had been increased and that the account would be reviewed annually and that the account for the overdraft to remain in place would need to be kept in good order.    It's clear no annual review from at least 2006 had taken place as 'good order' was that the account was to be seen to be going in and out of credit whch of course was not the case, it hasn't been in the black since 2005/6   The bank refused to budge , also denied that the customer had been into the branch in 2012 and in any case as it was 2019 they didn't have to go that far back with a complaint if it had not been raised before.   Thats stage 1   A complaint was raised with the Ombudsman in late 2019, they accepted the complaint and lodged with Barclays that an account had been logged and that they (Ombudsman) were thus engaged on the account.   In the meantime the customer continued to maintain the account with Barclays as per the previous 13 years at the same time as providing info to the Ombudsman when it was requested.   Barclays wrote asking the customer to call them, but they had been put on notice in the original complaint that the Customer wanted all communication in writing, three times barclays asked for them to call despite them knowing the customer was 'vulnerable'  and still they continued the account knowing that the customer was only paying them out of the disability payments etc...   Barclays were sent 3 letters via signed delivery asking that all communication be put in writing, the customer wanted to establish a papertrail so no room for error or misinterpretation similar to Barclays 2012 denial that the customer had been into the branch, all 3 letters were signed for all 3 letters went unanswered.   Late 2019/early 2020 Barclays were out of desperation contacted on the phone but as the account had not been placed in collections' then nobody from the department could speak to the customer ????   In or around March 2020 the Ombudsman wrote to the customer stating they were a week away from a resolution and that they were just awaiting for it to be signed off by a senior investigator.   3 weeks later Covid hit but no resolution had been sent, a month or so later an email was sent to the Ombudsman requesting clarification and a month later they wrote back saying 'it's a week away (again) and they'll be in touch and then the case went cold, nothing heard and no return of phone calls to them.   After months of delays and after not hearing from the Ombudsman a letter was sent to one of their senior Ombudsman who replied that they'd take a look and be back in touch in a week and which they were and where they stated that the case: A: Should not have been taken on by the original investigator as it was above their remit, it should also have been picked up by another investigator when it was looked at during the initial process but again it wasn't. B: As the case had been incorrectly assigned it was then unassigned and placed on hold and for the following reason: C :  The case was of a sort that the banks and the Ombudsman have been discussing, no reasons for the discussion was given but as the case fell into this criteria it was on hold pending the discussions being concluded by the banks/ombudsman.   In short just over 12 months of the case first being allocated/engaged it had been unallocated/disengaged and placed on hold.   A second complaint was therefore lodged with the Ombudsman which was duly investigated and a nominal amount was offered for what they stated was poor service.  This amount was refused and the complaint was then sent to the Assessor (next step) but they wrote back stating that until the case had been finalised by the Ombudsman the assessor would not be able to investigate the complaint.   Updated were occasionally given by the Ombudsman on the state of the original complaint against Barclays but even that dropped into the abyss early 2021.    After a recent request to the Ombudsman to ask if the 2019 onwards discussions with the banks had been concluded an email was sent back saying that the case was just about to be reallocated (no answer as to if their discussions had concluded.   A week later an new case investigator was placed onto the case, they had written to Barclays and were awaiting their response.   1 week later they investigator came back with:   Barclays are offering to write the account off and to close the account.   And that is where they're stuck,  15yrs of overdrafts fees being paid, (almost 2.7 times the orignal amount of the o/d) with Barclays refusing to budge, then out of the blue came the offer.   The offer is on the table for a few weeks, but is it an offer to take?   When intial contact was made the bank with the complaint in 2019 they did nothing on the o/d account but very quickly (1 week) shut down one of the Barclayscard credit cards the customer had with them and placed the other at £250 limit (the limits before that were collectively 25k but had not been used for some years)     I have read somewhere that this 'credit card' balance reduction affected the credit worthability of a credit card holder, it's an indirect hit on them and this seems borne out as although the customer has a good credit record (not really facilitating it) they have been refused credit from a source they have always used and who they have never had any problem with before and this is only after the Barclaycard issue.     Sorry for the elognated post but for me, the offer whilst it may seem ok, well if it's their offer now and whilst they may withdraw the offer I think it has more legs? The customer should never have bee allowed to get where they've been for the last 15 years......Barclays have had considerably more than the original o/d and they want to stick to terms and conditions but then seem to flout them themselves by not conducting regular reviews or even as recent as knowing a customer is struggling and they still continue onwards unabated.     Deb                                                          
    • cash cowed blind. just run the sb date to infinity for 15yrs.     who are moorcrofts client please   and i bet you have a bank account and or a card with hsbc too...
    • It was for an HSBC personal bank loan of 20k Was passed onto metropolitan collection services which agreed the £1 payment plan and have paid them every month since and they have left me alone. The new DCA is moorcroft and balance is still roughly them same.  I have always paid the agreed £1 as if I got a ccj I would lose my job.
    • What type of Bank loan ?   When you defaulted with the Bank, how much did you owe approx ?   Who did you agree the £1 token payment arrangement with ?  Is this the last DCA you were dealing with, before the debt was transfered to a new DCA ?    Which DCA's have been involved ?    There are many DCA's who have the same parent company owners and also there have been many DCA's bought out by new owners who have taken on the debts.   What is the current debt balance approx ?   Was there ever a period, when you did not make any payments towards the debt ?
    • Yes the £1 per month payment was agreed at the time and happy to continue this as a ccj would stop me from working in my current employment so have always kept to this.
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Over paid my council tax for the last 17 years


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As the title says I have been over paying council tax for the last 17 years.

 

Last week I got a letter from the Sheffield group valuation officer informing me of a "notice of alteration to an existing entry in the valuation list"

 

Basically this is to tell me my house has been re-banded and has gone from band B to A. The effective date of alteration is 1st April 1993 or 17 years ago.

 

I rang the valuation office who confirmed that when the house was valued for council tax a mistake was made and should have been in band A. He was unable to give me anymore info other than the council had been informed and they would contact me.

 

Today I have received 10 council tax adjustment notices covering the last 10 years. I don't know why they have only sent 10 as I am due 17.

 

Now what I need to know is has anybody had a similar scenario as I believe I am due to all 17 years plus interest. If I had took them to court I would be entitled to claim interest at 8%. Do you think they will offer up if asked or will i have to take court action. If the boot was on the other foot they would want 8%.

 

Thanks for any help or advise in advance.

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I got my house rebanded right back to that sort of date and got the whole lot back. I instigated the revaluation so I know they had a wrong description of the house and there were other factors. Has this notification of yours come out of the blue or did you apply for it?

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This came out of the blue just over a week ago. The thing that concerns me is it is there mistake. They have had this money a long time some of it 17 years has anybody managed to get interest on it and if so was it straightforward or was it a fight. After all they where negligent in valuing it wrong

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I did not get interest on my repayment. I think I did ask but was told it was not payable. I did get mine rebanded from D to A as there were other factors and as it was an even better result than I expected I didn't take it further.

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There is no provision for interest in council tax regulations and therefore the local authority does not have to pay it - there has apparently been some success with approaching the VOA directly.

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I understand there may be no provision in council tax regulations but the council have been unduly enriched. If you are late paying or don't pay they take you to court and claim 8%. Whats the difference? Not looking for something in council tax regulations more just statute and common law.

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If you are late paying or don't pay they take you to court and claim 8%

 

I think the important bit of that is the involvement of the court. Late payers are not charged interest unless it reaches the courts.

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  • 3 weeks later...

"miniconverter" can you tell me if your council automatically sent you your due refund or did you have to write to them for it , how long did it take etc.

i have exactly the same outcome as yours ...i have been rebanded from "b" to "a" and have overpaid for 17yrs .with exactly the same letter from the VOA

any info would be greatly appreciated

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